Solving UPSC IAS Prelims PYQ (Previous Year Questions) is important for several reasons:
Familiarity with Exam Pattern: Solving previous year question papers will help you get familiar with the pattern and structure of the UPSC IAS Prelims exam. You will get an idea of the type of questions asked in the exam, the difficulty level, and the weightage given to each topic.
Understanding Exam Syllabus: By solving the PYQ, you can understand the weightage given to different topics in the exam. It will help you prioritize the topics that are important from the exam point of view.
Improve Time Management: Solving previous year question papers will help you improve your time management skills. By solving the questions within a limited time, you will get an idea of how much time you need to allocate to each question and section.
Identify Weaknesses: Solving the PYQ will help you identify your strengths and weaknesses. You can focus on your weak areas and improve your performance in those areas.
Boost Confidence: Solving the PYQ will boost your confidence level as you will get an idea of the level of preparation required to crack the exam. You will feel more confident and motivated to prepare for the exam.
Therefore, solving UPSC IAS Prelims PYQ is an important part of the exam preparation process and can greatly improve your chances of success.
PRELIMS PYQ CONTENT – UPSC CSE EXAM – Topic-wise Segregated
CHAPTER 1: INTRODUCTION OF ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY
1. Ecosystem: Structural and functional unit of biosphere; consists of community of living beings and physical environment, both interacting and exchanging materials between them. [UPSC 2015]
• Components of Ecosystem
o Abiotic components: Inorganic and non-living parts; consists of components
such as energy, rainfall, temperature,
atmosphere, substratum, materials,
latitude and altitude.
o Biotic components:
▪ Primary producers- Autotrophs
(self-nourishing): Green plants and
certain bacteria; synthesize
carbohydrate by the process of
photosynthesis for themselves;
supply indirectly to other non
producers. Examples include
herbaceous and woody plants (in
terrestrial ecosystem); microscopic
algae (in aquatic ecosystem).
▪ Consumers- Heterotrophs:
incapable of producing their own
food; depend on organic food
derived from plants, animals.
− Macro consumers: Feed on
plants or animals; herbivores
feed on plants; secondary
consumers feed on primary
consumers like wolves;
carnivores feed on secondary
consumers called tertiary
consumers; omnivores consume
both plants and animals.
− Micro consumers
Saprotrophs: Bacteria and fungi
which obtain energy and
nutrients by decomposing
detritus of plants and animal
origin; earthworms are detritus
feeders-> help in decomposition
of organic matter.
Q 1. Which one of the following is the best description of the term
“ecosystem”?
(a) A community of organisms
interacting with one another
(b) That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living organisms
(c) A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live
(d) The flora and fauna of a geographical area
2. Accounting of Ecosystems
• The Economics of Ecosystem and Biodiversity (TEEB) [UPSC 2016]
o It was a study led by Pavan Sukhdev from 2007-11.
o It is a global initiative focused on “making nature’s values visible”.
o Its principal objective is to mainstream the values of biodiversity and ecosystem
services into decision-making at all
levels.
o It is based in Geneva, Switzerland at the International Environment House, the
TEEB office is hosted by UNEP under
the Economics and Trade Branch (ETB)
of the Division of Technology, Industry
and Economics (DTIE).
• The Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES)
o It is an independent intergovernmental body, established by member States in
2012.
o Its objective is to strengthen the science policy interface for biodiversity and
ecosystem services for the conservation
and sustainable use of biodiversity, long
term human well-being and sustainable
development.
o UNEP provides secretariat services to IPBES.
o Four complementary areas-> Assessments, policy support, Building
capacity and knowledge and
Communications & Outreach.
• Wealth Accounting and valuation of Ecosystem services (WAVES)
o It is a World Bank-led global partnership that aims to promote sustainable
Q 4. With reference to an initiative called ‘The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF and World Economic Forum
2. It is a global initiative that
focuses on drawing attention to
the economic benefits of
biodiversity
3. It presents an approach that can help decision-makers recognize, demonstrate and capture the
value of ecosystems and
biodiversity
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
development by ensuring that natural
resources are mainstreamed in
development planning and national
economic accounts.
o It is part of the broader World Bank umbrella initiative, the Global Program
for Sustainability (GPS).
o It was launched at 2010 Convention on Biological meeting in Nagoya, Japan.
• The Economics of Land Degradation (ELD) initiative
o It is a global initiative established in 2011 by UNCCD, the German Federal
Ministry for Economic Cooperation and
Development, and the European
Commission.
o It is coordinated and supported by the ELD Secretariat.
o It highlights the reward of investing in land management and provides a
universal approach for analysis of the
economics of land degradation.
3. Nitrogen fixation [UPSC 2022]
• Nitrogen fixation is a process that implies the transformation of the relatively non reactive atmospheric N2 into its more reactive compounds (nitrates, nitrites, or ammonia).
• An N-fixing crop is a natural way to provide plant-adjusted N without any industrial harm to nature.
• Nitrogen fixing plants are: Clovers, vetches, and peas are nitrogen-fixing plants used by farmers worldwide and in the US Southern Great Plains in particular.
• Peas or beans can be used as a summer nitrogen-fixing cover crop or harvested for food. Both ways, they enrich the soil with plant-suitable N.
• Beans: fava (aka faba, broad), alfalfa, green (aka French), runner, field, sweet, peanuts (aka groundnuts), soybeans, cream, black eyed, or purple-hulled beans, lupins, lentils, cowpeas.
10. Which of the following are nitrogen fixing plants?
1. Alfalfa
2. Amaranth
3. Chickpea
4. Clover
5. Purslane (Kulfa)
6. Spinach
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6
4. Greenwashing [UPSC 2022]
• It is the process of conveying a false impression or providing misleading information about how a company’s products are more environmentally sound.
16. Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”?
(a) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
• Greenwashing is considered an unsubstantiated claim to deceive consumers into believing that a company’s products are environmentally friendly.
(b) Non-inclusion of ecological/
environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country
(c) Ignoring the consequences
disastrous ecological while infrastructure development undertaking
(d) Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme
5. Cultivators of Fungi [UPSC 2022]
• Fungi and insects are two hyperdiverse groups of organisms that have interacted for millennia.
• Over time, some insects have come to rely on fungi for a variety of resources, including room and board.
• Ants, wasps, beetles and a variety of other insects have adapted to using fungi primarily for reinforcing structures or as sources of food, with the most extreme examples resulting in cultivation of fungal crops.
• Chief among these examples are the mushroom-farming ants and termites, and the wood-boring beetles and wasps.
18. Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of
fungi?
(a) Ant
(b) Cockroach
(c) Crab
(d) Spider
6. Symbiotic relationship [2021]: It is a close ecological relationship between the individuals of two or more different species-
• Cnidaria is an invertebrate phylum which has a symbiotic relation with the unicellular dinoflagellate algae, called zooxanthellae.
• Fungi live inside the roots of plants -> plants provide nutrients to the fungus and, in return, the fungus provides water and certain nutrients. Fungi also lives in a symbiotic relation with algae as a lichen.
• Protozoa has a close mutualistic association with unicellular symbiont (like bacteria, cyanobacteria or/and unicellular algae) or multicellular organism (ruminants, lower termites, wood-eating cockroaches, plants).
• Coral and Zooxanthellae: Corals live in a symbiotic relationship with algae called zooxanthellae + Coral provide CO2, ammonium and protection to zooxanthellae + Zooxanthellae provide coral with nutrients through photosynthesis; Corals need these organic products of photosynthesis to grow, thrive, and build up the reef.
11. Which of the following have species that can establish a symbiotic
relationship with other organisms?
1. Cnidarians
2. Fungi
3. Protozoa
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
• Symbiosis: Three types of behaviours observed- Mutualism, Commensalism, Parasitism.
7. Ferns: Nonflowering vascular plants that possess true roots, stems, and complex leaves and that reproduce by spores. Ferns require indirect sunlight, moist soil, and a humid atmosphere. It prefers potting soil with good drainage and high organic content. [UPSC 2021]
8. Lichens: They are symbiotic associations of fungi and algae in which fungi (mycobiont) facilitate water, minerals etc to the algae and algae (phycobiont) prepare carbohydrate by the process of photosynthesis and supply the food to the fungi. They can grow on any undisturbed surface such as bark, wood, mosses, rock, peat, glass, metal, plastic etc. [UPSC 2014]
9. Mosses: Non-flowering plants which produce spores and have stems and leaves, but do not have true roots. It needs virtually nothing except shade and moisture to thrive.
16. In nature, which of the following is/are most likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil?
1. Fern
2. Lichen
3. Moss
4. Mushroom
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
10. Photosynthesis [UPSC 2014]
• It is the process by which green plants and certain other organisms transform light energy into chemical energy.
• During photosynthesis in green plants, light energy is captured and used to convert water, carbon dioxide, and minerals into oxygen and energy-rich organic compounds.
• Factors: Internal: Number, size, age and orientation of leaves, mesophyll cells and chloroplasts, internal CO2 concentration and the amount of chlorophyll + External: Availability of sunlight, temperature, CO2 concentration and water.
Q 17. Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?
(a) Potential energy is released to form free energy
(b) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored
(c) Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water.
(d) Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out
CHAPTER 2: FUNCTIONS OF AN ECOSYSTEM
PRELIMS PYQ CONTENT – UPSC CSE EXAM – Topic-wise Segregated
1. Phosphorous cycle: Occurs in large amounts in phosphate rocks and enters cycle from erosion and mining activities + Main storage is earth’s crust and it is available by weathering and erosion + Phosphates also enters rivers and ocean + After million years crustal plates rise and expose phosphates on land and the geochemical phase begin again + The weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrient to enter the phosphorous cycle + Much of the phosphorus on Earth is tied up in rock and sedimentary deposits, from which it is released by weathering, leaching, and mining. Phosphorus moves in a cycle through rocks, water, soil and sediments and organisms. [UPSC 2021]
2. Sulphur cycle: Reservoir is in soil and sediments (locked in coal, oil etc) and inorganic deposits (pyrite rock and sulphur rock) in the form of sulphates, sulphides and organic Sulphur + It is released through weathering of rocks, erosional runoff and decomposition of organic matter and is carried to terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems in salt solution.
• Sulphur enters the atmosphere from several sources like volcanic eruptions, combustion of fossil fuels, from the surface of the ocean and gases released by decomposition.
• Atmospheric sulphur dioxide carried back to earth after being dissolved in rainwater as weak sulphuric acid (acid rain).
• Sulphur in the form of sulphates is taken up by plants and incorporated through a series of metabolic processes into sulphur bearing amino acid which is incorporated in the proteins of autotroph tissues. It then passes through the grazing food chain.
• Sulphur bound in a living organism is carried back to the soil, to the bottom of ponds and lakes and seas through excretion and decomposition of dead organic material.
8. In the case of which of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrients to enter the cycle?
(a) Carbon cycle
(b) Nitrogen cycle
(c) Phosphorus cycle
(d) Sulphur cycle
3. Nitrogen cycle: Elemental form of Nitrogen cannot be used directly by most living organisms. It needs to be fixed to ammonia, nitrites or nitrates before it is taken by plants. It occurs in three ways:
• By microorganisms (bacteria and blue green algae)
• By man using industrial processes (fertilizer factories): It exceeded
o amount fixed by natural cycle and has became a pollutant which can
o disrupt balance of nitrogen lead to acid rain, eutrophication etc.
• Atmoshperic phenomenon such as thunder and lightning
4. Carbon cycle: Carbon is present in the atmosphere in form of CO2 + Cycle involves continuous exchange of carbon between the atmosphere and organisms + Carbon from atmosphere -> green plants by photosynthesis + Carbon from animals -> Through respiration and decomposition of dead organic matter, it returns to the atmosphere + It is usually a short term cycle; also accumulates as un-decomposed organic matter in the peaty layers of marshy soil in bottom sediments of aquatic systems which take a long time to be released + Ocean is the second largest carbon sink + CO2 is a greenhouse gas and traps heat in the atmosphere. Without it and other GHGs, Earth would be a frozen world.
5. Oxygen cycle-> most vital element on Earth roughly 21% of the atmosphere.
• Processes that produce oxygen: Photosynthesis in plants; Sunlight + water vapour = some oxygen is produced + Processes that consume oxygen: Breathing, decomposition, combustion and rusting.
• Cycling of oxygen: Highly complex process; Oxygen + nitrogen = nitrates; Photosynthesis- oxygen is released as a byproduct + Animals and humans consume oxygen during respiration and release CO2 into the atmosphere + This carbon dioxide is then again utilised by plants for photosynthesis and thus the cycle moves on.
6. Detritivores: These are heterotrophs that obtain nutrients by consuming detritus. There are many kinds of invertebrates, vertebrates and plants that carry out coprophagy. By doing so, all these detritivores contribute to decomposition and the nutrient cycles + Examples include Earthworms, blowflies, millipedes, maggots, and woodlice. [UPSC 2021]
7. Seahorse: It is considered a secondary consumer; occupy a middle position in their food chain + They primarily feed on plankton, small fish and small crustaceans, such as shrimp and copepods + It gains energy by eating other living organisms.
8. Jelly Fish: These are excellent predators + They have long tentacles with multiple cells on it called cnidoblasts, which shelter nematocysts that contain stinging threads + They sting with tentacles to subdue small aquatic fish and eat eggs that stick to their tentacles.
9. Detritus food chain: Starts from dead organic matter of decaying animals and plant bodies consumed by microorganisms and then to detritus feeding organism called detrivores + It is maximum in terrestrial/land.
10. Functions of Detritivores: They contribute to the breakdown of all of the dead and decaying material in any ecosystem-> important role in the cycling of nutrients and are an essential part of most biogeochemical cycles, such as the carbon cycle, nitrogen cycle and the phosphorus cycle.
9. Which of the following are
detritivores?
1. Earthworms
2. Jellyfish
3. Seahorse
4. Woodlice
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
CHAPTER 3: AQUATIC ECOSYSTEM
PRELIMS PYQ CONTENT – UPSC CSE EXAM – Topic-wise Segregated
1. Biorock technology
• Biorock technology is used to protect coral reefs by building rock-like materials beneath the ocean. [UPSC 2022]
• It is the process in which a very low voltage electric current is applied through the seawater. This causes the deposition of crystalline salts of minerals dissolved in water.
11. “Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations?
(a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs (b) Development of building materials using plant residues
(c) Identification of areas for
exploration/extraction of shale gas (d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas
2. Copepods [UPSC 2021]: These are small aquatic crustaceans and are one of the most numerous metazoan groups in aquatic communities. These are major secondary producers in the World Ocean which represent an important link between phytoplankton, micro zooplankton and higher trophic levels such as fish.
3. Cyanobacteria [UPSC 2021]: Also called blue-green algae, these are microscopic organisms found naturally in soils and all types of water. Important primary producers in the food chain of oceans and form a part of the phytoplankton.
4. Diatoms [UPSC 2021]: These are photosynthesising algae; found in almost every aquatic environment including fresh and marine waters; major primary producers in the ocean, responsible annually for ~20% of photosynthetically fixed CO2 on Earth.
• Diatom test: Maharashtra Anti-Terrorism Squad (ATS) relied on a diatom tests for leads in the alleged murder case of Mansukh Hiran + It helps in diagnosing the death caused by drowning. It tests diatoms in the body being tested + If person is alive when he enters the water-> diatoms will enter the lungs when person inhales water while drowning. These diatoms are then carried to different body parts by blood circulation + If a person is dead when is thrown in the water-> no circulation and no transport of diatom cells to various organs + It is reliable unless and until the deceased person has been drinking water from the same source of water before his death.
5. Foraminifera: Foraminifera are amoeba-like, single celled protists (very simple micro-organisms). They have been called ‘armoured amoebae’ because they secrete a tiny shell usually between about a half and one millimetre long.
3. Consider the following kinds of organisms:
1. Copepods
2. Cyanobacteria
3. Diatoms
4. Foraminifera
Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
CHAPTER 4: ENVIRONMENTAL POLLUTION AND DEGRADATION PRELIMS PYQ CONTENT – UPSC CSE EXAM – Topic-wise Segregated
1. Sources of Methane and Nitrous oxide • Methane and nitrous oxide are important greenhouse gases. They contribute to global warming. Important anthropogenic sources of biogenic methane are wet rice fields, cattle, animal waste, landfills and biomass burning. [UPSC 2022]
• Flooded rice cultivation has been identified as one of the leading global agricultural sources of anthropogenic methane (CH4) emissions.
• Paddies are a potential source of anthropogenic nitrous oxide (N2O) emission as well. In paddies, both the soil and the rice plants emit N2O into the atmosphere.
1. Among the following crops, which one is the most important
anthropogenic source of both
methane and nitrous oxide?
(a) Cotton
(b) Rice
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Wheat
2. WHO Air Quality Guidelines [UPSC 2022] • WHO has released the Global Air Quality Guidelines(AQGs).
• The new guidelines recommend air quality levels for six pollutants -> PM 2.5 and PM 10, ozone (O3), nitrogen dioxide (NO2), sulfur dioxide (SO2) and carbon monoxide (CO).
• The annual average concentrations of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m3, while 24-hour average exposures should not exceed 15 µg/m3
• The highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of sunny weather.
• PM10 are capable of penetrating deep into the lungs but PM2.5 can even enter the bloodstream
• Long-term exposure to ozone is linked to aggravation of asthma, and is likely to be one of many causes of asthma development.
6. In the Guidelines, statements: context of WHO consider the Air Quality following
1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³
and annual mean of PM 2.5
should not exceed 5 µg/m³.
2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during
the periods of inclement
weather.
3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the
bloodstream.
4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2 only
3. Acid Rain
• Normal rain has a pH of about 5.6. When pH falls below this; it is called acid rain (pH 4.2 to 4.4).
• Caused by atmospheric pollution from acidic gases such as sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen emitted from the burning of fossil fuels. [UPSC 2022]
19. Consider the following:
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Nitrogen oxide
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
4. Blue carbon: It is stored in the coastal ecosystem such as Mangroves, seagrass meadows and intertidal salt marshes. Coastal ecosystems such as mangroves, tidal marshes and seagrass meadows sequester and store more carbon per unit area than terrestrial forests and are now being recognized for their role in mitigating climate change + These ecosystems also provide essential benefits for climate change adaptation, including coastal protection and food security for many coastal
15. What is blue carbon?
(a) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems
(b) Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and agricultural soils
(c) Carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas
(d) Carbon present in the atmosphere
communities + Dedicated conservation efforts can ensure that coastal ecosystems continue to play their role as long-term carbon sinks. [UPSC 2021]
5. Black carbon: It is a kind of an aerosol and sooty black material emitted from gas and diesel engines, coal-fired power plants due to incomplete combustion + Comprises high levels of particulate matter + Short lived climate pollutant (few days to weeks) + They are 2nd most anthropogenic agent for climate change.
• Main Sources: Incomplete burning of coal, biomass burning, cooking with solid fuels, diesel exhausts etc.
• Impact: When deposited on ice, reduces the reflective capacity, good absorber of sunlight- > absorb million time more energy than CO2; affect cloud formation and rainfall + It may also lead to depletion of ozone layer + Key component of PM 2.5 -> negative health impacts.
• Facts: India contributes around 25% of the world’s black carbon emissions; second largest contributor to black carbon in the world.
6. Brown carbon: It is emitted majorly by biomass combustion + It is ubiquitous
and unidentified component of organic aerosol + It is light absorbing organic matter.
• Major sources: Biomass burning (including domestic wood burning), agricultural
fires including stubble burning etc.
7. Brown Vs Black carbon: Black carbon is produced by high temperature combustion and brown carbon is emitted by biomass combustion.
8. Benzene [UPSC 2020]: Benzene is a natural constituent of crude oil and is one of the elementary petrochemicals + It increase the risk of cancer, bone marrow failure and other illnesses
• Natural sources include volcanoes and forest fires.
• Industrial processes such as processing of petroleum products, production of xylene and other aromatic compounds, use in industrial and consumer products as chemical intermediate and component of petrol (gasoline) and heating oil.
• Automobile exhaust accounts for the largest source of benzene in environment.
Q 6. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution?
1. Automobile exhaust
2. Tobacco smoke
3. Wood burning
4. Using varnished wooden
furniture
5. Using products made of
polyurethane
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
• Wood smoke was the biggest contributor of many organic compounds, including benzene, ethene and ethyne.
• It could be released from varnished wooden furniture or new carpets and using products made of polyurethane.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
9. Microbeads [UPSC 2019]
• Microbeads are manufactured solid plastic particles of less than five millimeters mostly made from polyethylene and other petrochemical plastics such as polypropylene and polystyrene.
• They are used in exfoliating personal care products, toothpastes and in biomedical and health-science research.
• They can cause plastic particle water pollution and pose an environmental hazard for aquatic animals in freshwater and ocean water.
• Greenpeace refers to it as a “toxic time bomb”.
• In the marine environment microplastics can both release and absorb toxins, which can then move throughout the foodchain.
Q 7. Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into the environment?
(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems
(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
(c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.
10. Bioremediation
• It is the technology that uses microorganism metabolism to remove pollutants; cleans up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
• Environment is altered to stimulate growth of micro-organisms and degrade pollutants.
• It is used to remediate soils/sludge and groundwater contaminated by petroleum hydrocarbons, solvents, pesticides, and other organic chemicals.
• It is a slow process, so the heavy metals such as cadmium and lead are not readily absorbed by bioremediation using microorganisms.
• In-situ bioremediation
o Bioventing: supply of air and nutrients through wells to
contaminated soil to stimulate the
growth of indigenous bacteria.
Q 2. In the context of solving pollution problems, which is/are the
advantage/advantages of bioremediation techniques?
1. It is a technique of cleaning up
pollution by enhancing the same
biodegradation process that occurs in nature
2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be
readily and completely treated by
bioremediation using
microorganisms
3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
o Biosparging: Injection of air under pressure below the water table to
increase groundwater oxygen
concentrations and enhance the rate
of biological degradation of
contaminants by naturally occurring
bacteria.
o Bio augmentation: Microorganisms are imported to a contaminated site to
enhance degradation process.
o Bioleaching: Extraction of metals from their ores through the use of
living organisms.
• Ex-situ bioremediation
o Bioreactors: These are large vessels where the contaminated material can
be monitored and conditions for
bioremediation can be controlled.
o Land farming: It involves spreading contaminated soil into a lined bed (to
prevent leaching) and periodically
applying nutrients and mixing the soil
to boost biological activity.
o Bio piling: It places the contaminated soil into piles that are well aerated and
nutrients are added to speed up
bioremediation.
• Advantages of Bioremediation [UPSC 2017]
o By relying solely on natural processes, it minimizes damage to
ecosystems.
o Creates relatively few harmful byproducts -> contaminants
converted into water and harmless
gases like carbon dioxide.
o It is cheaper than most cleanup methods because it does not require
substantial equipment or labor.
(d) 1, 2, and 3
11. Carbon Sequestration: It describes long term storage of CO2 and other forms of carbon to mitigate global warming. Also known as Carbon capture and storage (CCS). • Mechanism: CCS catches and sequesters
(hide) CO2 from power stations, industrial sites and permanently stores it in underground.
• Potential sites: Natural sinks such as Ocean, forests, soil etc. and Artificial
Q 5. In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to
anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration?
1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline formalities
sinks like depleted oil reserves, un mineable mines etc. [UPSC 2017]
• Types of Sequestration
o Geologic sequestration: Natural pore spaces in geologic formations
serve as reservoirs for long term CO2
storage.
▪ Trapping mechanisms:
Hydrodynamic trapping (CO2
trapped under low permeability
hard rock), Solubility trapping
(dissolved into a liquid) and
Mineral carbonation.
o Ocean sequestration: Carbon is stored in oceans through direct
injection or fertilization.
▪ Enhancing productivity of ocean
biological systems through Iron
fertilization (stimulates
phytoplankton production), and
injecting CO2 into deep ocean.
o Terrestrial sequestration: Increasing carbon fixation through
photosynthesis, changing land use
pattern enhance carbon uptake in
soils, vegetation etc.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
12. Biological oxygen demand: Water pollution by organic wastes measured in BOD + It is amount of dissolved oxygen needed by bacteria in decomposing the organic wastes present in water + It is expressed in milligrams of oxygen per litre of water + Higher value of BOD -> low DO content of water. [UPSC 2017]
13. Chemical oxygen demand: Measure of oxygen equivalent of requirement of oxidation of total organic matter (both biodegradable and non biodegradable) present in water.
Q 10. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criteria for
(a) Measuring oxygen level in blood
(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystem
(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions
14. National Air Quality Index: It is a number used by government agencies to communicate the public how polluted the air quality is or how polluted it is forecasted to become.
• Launched in Sep 2014 as part of Swachh Bharat Abhiyan by MoEFCC.
• Nodal Agency: CPCB is the nodal agency; developed color coded air-quality index to mark hazardous levels for the public benefit.
• Six AQI categories: Good, Satisfactory, moderately polluted, poor, very poor and severe.
• 8 pollutants: PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, 03, NH3 and Pb. [UPSC 2016]
Q 9. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index?
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Carbon monoxide
3. Nitrogen dioxide
4. Sulfur dioxide
5. Methane
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
CHAPTER 5: IMPORTANT WETLANDS
PRELIMS PYQ CONTENT – UPSC CSE EXAM – Topic-wise Segregated
1. Ramsar Convention
• The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands of International Importance is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands. It is also known as the Convention on Wetlands.
• It is named after the city of Ramsar in Iran, where the convention was signed in 1971.
• Wetland Definition: “Wetland” means an area or of marsh, fen, peatland or watee; includes all inland waters such as lakes, reservoir, tanks, backwaters, lagoon, creeks, estuaries and manmade wetland and the zone of direct influence on wetlands that is to say the drainage area or catchment region of the wetlands as determined by the authority but does not include main river channels, paddy fields and the coastal wetland.
• There is no binding provision on the Governments to protect and conserve wetlands. Contracting Parties make a commitment to designate at least one site that meets the Ramsar criteria for inclusion in the List of Wetlands of International importance, promote the conservation and wise use of wetlands.
• The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
• Aquatic plants of wetlands absorb heavy metals and excessive nutrients thereby purifying water. For instance, Mangrove trees have the ability of storing metals, transferring these elements from the sediment and concentrating them in their tissues. [UPSC 2022, 2019]
5. “If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?
(a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.
(b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.
(c) 58 15 Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.
(d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.
2. Hokera Wetland is located in Jammu and Kashmir, not Punjab. Hokera wetland is about 10 km from Srinagar. It is a natural perennial wetland contiguous to the Jhelum basin. [UPSC 2022]
3. Renuka Wetland is the largest natural lake in Himachal Pradesh. It is a natural wetland with freshwater springs and inland subterranean karst formations, fed by a small stream flowing from the lower Himalayan out to the Giri river. [UPSC 2022]
4. Rudrasagar Lake, also known as Rudijala, is a lake located in Melaghar, Tripura. It is designated as a Ramsar site. A lowland sedimentation reservoir in the northeast hills, fed by three perennial streams discharging to the River Gomti. [UPSC 2022]
5. Sasthamkotta is located in the Kollam district of Kerala, not Tamil Nadu. It is the largest freshwater lake in Kerala and has always been a centre of tourist activity. [UPSC 2022]
1. Consider the following pairs:
Wetland/Lake: Location 18. Hokera Wetland Punjab 19. Renuka
Wetland Himachal
Pradesh
20. Rudrasagar Lake Tripura 21. Sasthamkotta Tamil Nadu
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
6. Kolleru Lake
• It is largest fresh water lake located between Krishna and Godavari deltas in Andhra Pradesh, India.
• Declared as wildlife sanctuary in 1999 under Wildlife Protection Act of 1972, and designated wetland of international importance in 2002 under Ramsar Convention.
• Important habitat for grey or spot billed pelican and many migratory birds such as Siberian crane, ibis, and painted storks.
7. Nainital lake
• It is a natural freshwater body, situated in town of Nainital in Uttarakhand.
• The lake is in crescent or kidney shape and is one of the most famous lakes of the Kumaon region.
• Bounded by Naini Peak on North West, Tiffin Point on the South West and snow-capped peaks on the north, the Nainital Lake offers a breathtaking view, especially during early morning and sunset.
8. Renuka lake
Q 1. Which one of the following is an artificial lake?
(a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
(b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
(c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)
(d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
• It is in the Sirmaur district of Himachal Pradesh in India and it is 672 m above the sea level.
• It is the largest lake in Himachal Pradesh, with a circumference of about 3214 m.
• It is designated as Ramsar site in 2005. Renuka dam project has been conceived as a storage project on the Giri river (a tributary of the Yamuna)-
> It envisages making a 148-metre high dam for supplying water to Delhi and other basin States.
• Around 90% of the cost of irrigation/drinking water component of the project will be provided by the Central government.
9. Kodaikanal/Kodai lake [UPSC 2018] • It is a manmade lake located in the Kodaikanal city in Tamil Nadu, India. • Nestled amidst the rolling slopes of the Palani Hills, it stands at an altitude of 7200 feet above sea level.
CHAPTER 6: PROTECTED AREAS: NATIONAL PARKS, WILDLIFE SANCTUARIES, TIGER RESERVES etc
PRELIMS PYQ CONTENT – UPSC CSE EXAM – Topic-wise Segregated
1. Biosphere Reserves [UPSC 2014]
• Definition: Biosphere reserves are areas of terrestrial and coastal ecosystems promoting solutions to reconcile the conservation of biodiversity with its sustainable use.
• Origin: In 1971 UNESCO launched its Man and Biosphere Programme.
• Recognition and control: They are internationally recognized, nominated by national governments and remain under sovereign jurisdiction of the states where they are located.
• Regulated under: As per the law, these regions of environmental protection related to the IUCN Category V Protected areas.
• Criteria for Designation of Biosphere Reserve
o A site must contain a protected and minimally disturbed core area of value of
nature conservation.
o Core area must be a bio-geographical unit and should be large enough to
sustain a viable population representing
all trophic levels.
o The involvement of local communities and use of their knowledge in
biodiversity preservation.
o Areas potential for preservation of traditional tribal or rural modes of living
for harmonious use of the environment.
2. Wildlife sanctuary: WPA act of 1972 provided for declaration of certain areas by state government as wildlife sanctuaries if area was thought to be of adequate ecological, geomorphological and natural significance; more than 500 WLS in India.
• Human activities: Some restricted human activities are allowed in WLS as specified in the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972.
• Highest number of wildlife sanctuaries located in Andaman& Nicobar Islands (96).
3. National Park: WPA, 1972 provides for declaration of NP by state governments of areas which are of adequate ecological, faunal, floral,
Q 13. The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of
(a) biosphere reserves
(b) botanical gardens
(c) national parks
(d) wildlife sanctuaries
geomorphological, natural or zoological importance; In some cases, Central government can also declare an area as NP; boundaries are fixed and defined; main objective is to protect natural environment and biodiversity conservation.
• Human activities: Settlement and private ownership of land not permitted + Grazing and fuel wood collection also prohibited + Only those human activities which are allowed by Chief Wildlife warden of state permitted inside NP + Species mentioned in Schedules of WPA not allowed to be hunted or captured + No alteration of the boundaries of a national park shall be made except on a resolution passed by State Legislature.
4. Desert National Park [UPSC 2020]
• It is situated in the Jaisalmer and Barmer districts of Rajasthan. It is one of the largest national parks covering an area of 3162 km².
• There are numerous settlements/Dhanis existing within the park.
• It is the second largest national park of India; became UNESCO world heritage site in 1980.
• It is the only place where State Bird of Rajasthan (Great Indian Bustard), Khejri tree are found naturally.
• Fauna: Great Indian Bustard (CR) is native to the park, oriental white backed vulture, Long billed Gyps, Stoliczka's Bushchat Saxicola macrorhyncha, Green Munia Amandava formosa MacQueen's or Houbara Bustard Chlamydotis maqueeni.
Q 23. With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are
correct?
5. It is spread over two districts.
6. There is no human habitation
inside the Park.
7. It is one of the natural habitats of the Great Indian Bustard.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
5. Barasingha/Swamp Deer
• It is a deer species distributed in the Indian subcontinent.
• Populations in northern and central India are fragmented, and two isolated populations occur in southwestern Nepal.
• In Assamese, barasingha is called dolhorina; dol meaning swamp.
• They occur in the Kanha National Park (M.P), in two localities in Assam, and in only six localities in Uttar Pradesh.
• IUCN Red List: Endangered
• CITES: Appendix I
• Wildlife Protection Act of 1972: Schedule I
Q 10. Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous?
(a) Kanha National Park
(b) Manas National Park
(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary
6. Kanha National park: Largest NP of Madhya Pradesh and one of important tiger reserves of India; declared as a national park in 1955. • Flora: lush green forests of Kanha,
composed majorly of Sal (Shorea Robusta) and other mixed forest trees
• Fauna: Tiger, Hard ground Barasingha, Gaurs, Leopard, Dhole, Indian python etc. 7. Manas National park: UNESCO World Heritage Site, an elephant reserve and a biosphere reserve; located in the Himalayan foothills in Assam; contiguous with the Royal Manas National Park in Bhutan + Fauna: known for its rare and endangered endemic wildlife such as the One-horned Rhino, Manipur bush quail, Assam roofed turtle, hispid hare, golden langur pygmy hog and wild water buffalo. [UPSC 2020]
8. Mudumalai National park: It is part of Nilgiri biosphere reserves; Moyar river separates Bandipur and Madumalai. [UPSC 2020]
• Flora: tall grasses, commonly referred to as Elephant Grass; Bamboo of the giant variety, valuable timber species like Teak, Rosewood, etc.
• Fauna: Flagship Species are Tiger and Asian Elephant; Other species are Indian Gaur, Spotted Deer, Common Langur, Malabar Giant Squirrel, Wild Dog, Jungle Cat among others; rare birds like Malabar grey hornbill, Malabar pied hornbill, Malabar laughing thrush among others.
9. Tal Chhapar wildlife sanctuary [UPSC 2020] • Located 85 km from Churu in Shekhawati District, it is known as the home of blackbuck and a variety of birds in Rajasthan.
• The sanctuary is flanked by the Great India Desert, Thar and boasts a unique ecosystem and is an important birdwatching destination in India.
• Top halting places for migratory birds such as harriers. The migratory birds pass through Tal Chhapar Sanctuary during September.
• Migratory birds seen are harriers, eastern imperial eagle, tawny eagle, short-toed eagle, sparrow, and little green bee-eaters, black ibis and demoiselle cranes + skylarks, crested larks, ring doves, and brown doves are seen round the year.
10. Critical Tiger Habitats: Critical wildlife habitat means such areas of National Parks and sanctuaries which are required to be kept as inviolate for the purposes of wildlife conservation + It is determined and notified by the Central Government in the MoEF&CC after an open process of consultation by an Expert Committee + They are identified under the Wild Life Protection Act, 1972 based on scientific evidence + Notified by the state government in consultation with the expert committee constituted for the purpose + Area of the core/critical tiger habitat-> Corbett (Uttarakhand): 821.99 sq. kms, Ranthambore (Rajasthan): 1113.36 sq. kms, Sundarbans (West Bengal): 1699.62 sq. kms and Nagarjunsagar Srisailam (part of Andhra Pradesh): 2595.72 sq. kms
11. Jim Corbett National park: It is the first national park in India; established in 1936 as Hailey national park to protect Bengal Tiger; first park under Project Tiger initiative. [UPSC 2020]
• Flora: Dense moist deciduous forest mainly consists of Sal, Haldu, peepal, rohini; Forest covers 73% area of the park and 10% of the area consists of grasslands.
• Fauna: It is well known for its tiger richness; Major animals are Elephants, Leopards, barking deer, hog deer, Chital, Indian Grey Mangoose.
12. Sunderbans tiger reserve (West Bengal): It is located in the Ganges delta + It is a national park, tiger reserve, biosphere reserve and Ramsar site + It is the only mangrove forest in the world inhabited by tigers + It is a UNESCO World heritage site. [UPSC 2020]
13. Ranathambore Tiger reserve: It was established initially as Sawai Madhopur Game Sanctuary in 1955 by the Government of India + In 1973, it was declared as a Tiger Reserve under Project Tiger + It lies in the eastern part of Rajasthan state in Karauli and Sawai Madhopur districts, at the junction of the Aravali and Vindhya hill ranges + The vegetation includes grasslands on plateaus and dense forests along the seasonal streams + The forest type is mainly tropical dry deciduous with ‘dhak’ (Butea monosperma), a
Q 25. Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”?
(a) Corbett
(b) Ranthambore
(c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam
(d) Sunderbans
species of tree capable of withstanding long periods of drought, being the commonest. [UPSC 2020]
14. Nagarjunasagar- Srisailam: It is the largest tiger reserve in India + It was notified in the year of 1978 and came under the protection of Project Tiger in 1983 + Fauna include
Bengal Tiger and many other species like leopard, rusty-spotted cat, pangolin, Mugger Crocodiles, Indian Rock Python, and innumerable varieties of birds are found + Flora include variety of forests ranging from southern tropical dry mixed deciduous forest till southern thorn forest.
15. Askot wildlife sanctuary: Established in 1986 to protect the endangered Musk Deer and its habitat; known as ‘Green Paradise on the Earth’. [UPSC 2020]
• Fauna: snow leopard, Himalayan black bear, Himalayan tahr, blue sheep, serow loong, monal, kalij pheasant besides musk deer.
• This sanctuary has been set up primarily with the object of conserving the musk deer and its habitat.
16. Kishanpur wildlife sanctuary [UPSC 2020] • It is a part of the Dudhwa Tiger Reserve near Mailani in Uttar Pradesh founded in 1972.
• Fauna: tiger, chital, hog deer, wild boars, otters etc.
• migratory birds like falcons, drongos, owls, egrets, and peacocks can be spotted in the open meadows.
17. Gangotri National park [UPSC 2020] • Fourth largest NP in the country with total area of 2390km2; situated in the upper catchment of Bhagirathi River;
• It forms a continuity between Govind National Park and Kedarnath Wildlife Sanctuary
• Flora: Common vegetation include Chir pine, Deodar, Fir, Spruce etc.
• Fauna: Snow leopard, Tiger, Himalayan Snowcock, Himalayan Thar, musk deer, Ibex; birds include Bulbul, Doves, Parakeet, patridges etc.
18. Manas National park: UNESCO World Heritage Site, an elephant reserve and a
Q 11. Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat?
1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary
2. Gangotri National Park
3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary
4. Manas National Park
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
biosphere reserve; located in the Himalayan foothills in Assam; contiguous with the Royal Manas National Park in Bhutan.
• Fauna: known for its rare and endangered endemic wildlife such as the One-horned Rhino, Manipur bush quail, Assam roofed turtle, hispid hare, golden langur pygmy hog and wild water buffalo.
19. Manas National Park: UNESCO World Heritage Site, an elephant reserve and a biosphere reserve; located in the Himalayan foothills in Assam; contiguous with the Royal Manas National Park in Bhutan.
• Fauna: known for its rare and endangered endemic wildlife such as the One-horned Rhino, Manipur bush quail, Assam roofed turtle, hispid hare, golden langur pygmy hog and wild water buffalo.
20. Namdapha National park: Protected area in Changlang district of Arunachal Pradesh; crossed by Noa Dihing river; located on Indo Myanmar border.
• Fauna: Namdapha Flying squirrel (CR) is endemic to this park, Dhole, Red Panda, Red fox etc. are other important mammals.
• Others: Important tribal groups include Lisu, Chakma, Tangsa and Singhpo.
21. Valley of Flowers National park: Located in chamoli region; known for its meadows of endemic alpine flowers and variety of flora. [UPSC 2019]
• It wholly lies in temperate alpine zone; valley has three sub-alpine between 3,200m and 3,500m which is the limit for trees, lower alpine between 3,500m and
3,700m, and higher alpine above 3,700m • Fauna: Musk deer, snow leopard, brown bear, blue sheep Red giant flying squirrel, Himalayan black bear, Himalayan weasel etc.
• Flora: Flowers found are mostly orchids, poppies, primulas etc.
22. Neora Valley National Park
• It is a national park declared in 1992 which is situated in the Kalimpong district of West Bengal.
• It belongs in the Eastern Himalayas Range with a rich and diverse biological eco system.
Q 2. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?
(a) Manas National Park
(b) Namdapha National Park
(c) Neora Valley National Park
(d) Valley of Flowers National Park
• Rechela Danda is the height point of the Neora Valley National Park, with an elevation of 10,600 ft.
• The Neora River is the main river of this park.
• Forest type: Tropical, sub-tropical, sub temperate, and temperate vegetative system. Rhododendron, bamboo, oak, ferns, sal are the main species in the forests.
• Mammals: It consists more than 30 species of mammals, which include the Red Panda, Clouded Leopard, Musk Deer, Mithun, Ghoral, Wild Dog, Himalayan Black Dear, five species of civet, sloth bear, golden cat, wild boar, serow, barking deer, sambar and Himalayan flying squirrel.
• Birds: There are more than 100 species of birds which include Eagle, Tragopan, Cuckoo, Wood Owl, Barbet, Woodpecker, Babbler, Robin, Thrush, Flycatcher, Jungle Crow, Sunbird, Maynas, Orioles, Warbler, Laughingthrush, Flowerpecker, Flycatcher and others.
23. Agasthyamala Biosphere reserve [UPSC 2019]
• It was established in 2001 and includes 3,500.36 km2 out of which 1828 km² is in Kerala and 1672.36 km² is in Tamil Nadu.
• Protected Area: The protected areas of the reserver includes Neyyar, Peppara and Shenduruny wildlife sanctuaries of Kerala and Kalakkad-Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve of Tamil Nadu.
• Ecoregions: Tropical wet evergreen forests, South Western Ghats moist deciduous forests, South Western Ghats montane rain forests and Shola.
• It is the habitat for 2,000 varieties of medicinal plants, of which at least 50 are rare and endangered species.
• Home to rare animals which include tiger, Asian Elephant, and Nilgiri Tahr.
• It is also home to the Kanikaran, one of the oldest surviving ancient tribes in the world. • It is a part of World Network of Biosphere Reserves under MAB Programme of UNESCO.
Q 5. Which of the following are in
Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?
(a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife sanctuaries; and Kalakad
Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
(b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park
(c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park
(d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and NagarjunasagarSrisailam Tiger Reserve
24. Pakhui (Pakke tiger reserve): It is located in East Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh + Bounded by Kameng river in west and north and by Pakke river in the east + Habitat types are lowland semi-evergreen, evergreen and Eastern Himalayan Broadleaf forests + It adjoins reserve forests and Assam’s Nameri national park. [UPSC 2018]
Q 6. In which one of the following states is Pakhui wildlife sanctuary located?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Manipur
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Nagaland
25. Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary, Madhya Pradesh [UPSC 2017]
• Kuno River, one of the major tributaries of Chambal River flows through the entire length bisecting the National Park division.
• Wildlife Institute of India and Wildlife Trust of India had shortlisted Palpur-Kuno park as habitats for Cheetahs and Asiatic lions.
• Dominant tree species: Anogeisus pendula, Acacia catechu, Boswellia serrata, Diospyros melanoxylon, leucophloea, Ziziphus mauritiana and Ziziphus xylopyrus.
• Leopard and striped hyena are the only larger carnivores within the Kuno National Park, with the single lone tiger T-38 having returned to Ranthambore in 2021.
Q 15. Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? [Based on Current Affairs 2016-2017]
(a) Corbett National Park
(b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Sariska National Park
26. Khangchendzonga National Park [UPSC 2015]: Includes a unique diversity of plains, valleys, spectacular snow-capped mountains covered with forests; falls in Himalayan Global biodiversity hotspots; UNESCO
World heritage site (first mixed heritage site in India); recently included in MAB program. • Important Fauna: Musk deer, Snow
leopard, Himalayan tahr, red panda, Himalayan black bear etc.
• Others: Lepcha tribal settlements; Tholung monastery located in the park’s buffer zone.
27. Nanda Devi national park: Declared World Heritage site by UNESCO in 1988; Valley of flowers and Nanda Devi are encompassed in Nanda Devi Biosphere reserve.
• Flora: Meadows of alpine flowers, fir, birch, rhodendron and juniper.
Q 1. Which one of the following National Parks has a climate that varies from tropical to subtropical, temperate and arctic?
(a) Khangchendzonga National park (b) Nandadevi National Park
(c) Neora Valley National Park
(d) Namdapha National park
• Fauna: Himalayan Musk deer, serow, Himalayan tahr, snow leopard, Himalayan black bear.
28. Namdapha National park: Protected area in Changlang district of Arunachal Pradesh; crossed by Noa Dihing river; located on Indo Myanmar border.
• Fauna: Namdapha Flying squirrel (CR) is endemic to this park, Dhole, Red Panda, Red fox etc. are other important mammals.
• Others: Important tribal groups include Lisu, Chakma, Tangsa and Singhpo.
• It has a climate that varies from tropical to subtropical, temperate and arctic.
29. Neora Valley National Park
• It is a compact patch of virgin forest, rich in biodiversity located in the Eastern Himalayas, a global 'biodiversity hotspot'.
• It was notified as a National Park in 1992. • It is contiguous with Sikkim and Bhutan at its northern and north-eastern boundaries respectively and links the Pangolakha Wildlife Sanctuary in Sikkim and the Toorsa Strict Reserve of Bhutan.
• It is also an integral part of the Kanchenjunga Landscape.
• Many of these species face the threat of extinction such as Balanophora neorensis, Balanophora polyandra, Betula utilis, Swertia chirata, Swertia bimaculata, Rananculus tricuspes, Digitalis purpuria, Geranium nepalense, Taxus baccata, and Ilex hookeri.
• Fauna include the Red Panda, Himalayan Tahr, Himalayan Black Bear, Sāmbar, Barking Deer, Serow, Goral, Dhole, Clouded Leopard, Chinese Pangolin etc.
30. Bhitarkanika National Park [UPSC 2015]: Located in kendrapara district of Odisha; second largest mangrove ecosystem in the country, also a Ramsar site; inundated by rivers like Brahmani, Baitrani and Pathsala.
• Fauna: Salt water crocodile, Olive ridley turtles, Indian python, black ibis etc.
• Flora: Mangroves (Sundari and thespian); grasses like Indigo, bush etc.
31. Keibul Lamjao National park [UPSC 2015]: Located in Bishnupur district of Manipur; world’s largest floating park; integral
Q 7. Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity?
(a) Bhitarkanika National Park
(b) Keibul Lamjao National Park
(c) Keoladeo Ghana National park
(d) Sultanpur National park
component of Loktak lake (largest freshwater lake of NE India).
• Features: Characterized by many floating decomposed plant materials called Phumdis; declared as Ramsar wetland site.
• Fauna: Natural refuge of Endangered Manipur Eld’s deer or Sangai deer, brow antlered deer (flagship species), Hog deer etc.
32. Keoladeo Ghana national park [UPSC 2015]: Lies at the confluence of Gambhir and Banganga rivers; sanctuary hosts thousands of birds; man-made and man-managed wetland; listed on Montreux record under Ramsar convention; UNESCO World heritage site.
• Flora: vegetation of this wetland is mostly kadam, babul, kair, ber etc.
• Fauna: world’s most important breeding areas for birds; other species are cranes, pelican, Eagles, Flycatchers, Demoiselle cranes, falcons, jackals, chital, Nilgai, hyenas, porcupine etc.
33. Sultanpur National park: It is a bird paradise for bird watchers + It is famous for its migratory as well as resident birds; important fauna include Blackbuck, Nilgai, Hog deer, Sambar, Leopard + Birds include Siberian Cranes, Greater Flamingo, Demoiselle Crane etc.
34. Eco-sensitive zones [UPSC 2014]: These are buffer zones around protected areas (NP, WLS etc) where only regulated activities for specialized eco-system are allowed; shock absorbers.
• ESZs are notified by MoEFCC, Indian Govt under Environment Protection Act 1986.
• Activities prohibited: Commercial mining, setting up of saw mills and industries causing pollution and major hydropower projects are prohibited.
• Activities restricted with safeguards: Felling of trees, drastic change in agriculture system and commercial use of natural water resources, including ground water harvesting and setting up of hotels and resorts.
Q 20. With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities in those
zones except agriculture
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
• Activities permitted: Ongoing agriculture and horticulture practices by local communities, rainwater harvesting, use of renewable energy sources etc.
35. Madhav Gadgil committee recommendations
• Entire western ghat (1,29,037sq km) should be designated as Ecologically sensitive area (ESA).
• Classified Western Ghats boundary into Ecologically Sensitive Zones (ESZ) 1, 2 and 3.
• ESZ-1 being of high priority, almost all developmental activities (mining, thermal power plants etc.) were restricted in it.
• No new dams based on large-scale storage be permitted in ESZ 1.
• Constitution of a Western Ghats Ecology Authority (WGEA), as a statutory authority under the Ministry of Environment and Forests, with the powers under Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 for protection of the region.
36. Kasturirangan committee recommendations
• Only 37% (i.e. 60,000 sq. km.) of the total area be brought under ESA.
• Complete ban on mining, quarrying and sand mining in ESA.
• Distinguished between cultural (58% occupied in the Western Ghats by it like human settlements, agricultural fields and plantations) and natural landscape (90% of it should come under ESA).
• Current mining areas in the ESA should be phased out within the next five years, or at the time of expiry of mining lease, whichever is earlier.
• No thermal power be allowed and hydropower projects are allowed only after detailed study.
• Red industries i.e. which are highly polluting be strictly banned in these areas.
CHAPTER 7: CLIMATE CHANGE + ORGANIZATIONS + AGREEMENTS + INITIATIVES
PRELIMS PYQ CONTENT – UPSC CSE EXAM – Topic-wise Segregated
1. Common carbon metric by UNEP: This tool provides a way to establish a baseline, measure, report, and verify energy savings and emissions reductions from buildings around the world in a consistent and comparable way. It is applied to the specific inventory of the buildings under study. Such an inventory can be developed from a top-down or bottom-up approach, depending on the scope and goal of the investigation. [UPSC 2021]
10. The “Common Carbon Metric” supported by UNEP, has been developed for
(a) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world
(b) Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading
(c) Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries
(d) Assessing the overall carbon foot-print caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit time
2. Climate Action Tracker [UPSC 2022] • It is an independent scientific analysis that tracks government climate action and measures it against the globally agreed Paris Agreement aim of “holding warming well below 2°C, and pursuing efforts to limit warming to 1.5°C.”
• A collaboration of two organizations, Climate Analytics and New Climate Institute, the CAT has been providing this independent analysis to policymakers since 2009.
3. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change(IPCC)
• International body for assessing the science related to climate change.
• It was set up in 1988 by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) to provide policymakers with regular assessments of the scientific basis of climate change.
• IPCC assessments provide a scientific basis for governments at all levels to develop climate related policies, and they underlie negotiations at the UN Climate Conference – the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
• Every few years (about 7 years), the IPCC produces assessment reports that are the
3.“Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a :
(a) Database created by coalition of research organisations
(b) Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”
(c) Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change”
(d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank
most comprehensive scientific evaluations of the state of earth’s climate.
4. UNFCCC
• The UNFCCC, signed in 1992 at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development also known as the Earth Summit, the Rio Summit or the Rio Conference
• It entered into force on March 21, 1994. • Objective: “to achieve, stabilization of greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system”.
• Near universal membership (197 Parties) and is the parent treaty of the 2015 Paris Agreement.
• Secretariat: Bonn, Germany.
5. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
• Founded in 1972 following the landmark UN Conference on the Human Environment
• It sets the global environmental agenda, promotes the sustainable development within the United Nations system, and serves as an authoritative advocate for global environment protection
• Major Reports: Emission Gap Report, Adaptation gap report, Global Environment Outlook, Frontiers, Invest into Healthy Planet
• Major Campaigns: Beat Pollution, UN75, World Environment Day, Wild for Life
• Headquarters: Nairobi, Kenya
• The United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA) is the governing body of the UN Environment programme; It meets biennially to set priorities for global environmental policies and develop international environmenal law.
6. Climate and Clean Air Coalition [UPSC 2017]
• The governments of Bangladesh, Mexico, Sweden, Ghana, Canada and USA along with UNEP came together in 2012 to treat short-lived climate pollutants as a collective and urgent challenge.
Q 11. Consider the following statements:
1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to reduce Short Lived
Climate Pollutants is a unique
initiative of G20 group of countries
• It is a voluntary partnership of governments, intergovernmental organizations, businesses, scientific institutions and civil society organizations committed to improving air quality and protecting the climate through actions to reduce short-lived climate pollutants.
• India has joined the coalition in 2019. Focus of CCAC: It focuses on Black carbon, Methane, Hydrofluorocarbons and tropospheric ozone.
2. The CCAC focusses on methane, black carbon and
hydrochlorofluorocarbons
Which of the given statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
7. Climate Group [UPSC 2022]
• It is an international non-profit founded in 2003, with offices in London, New York, New Delhi, Amsterdam and Beijing.
• Programmes focusing on renewable energy and reducing GHG emissions.
• Acts as secretariat for Under2 Coalition. 8. EP100 [UPSC 2022]
• It is a global initiative led by The Climate Group and the Alliance to Save Energy.
• It brings together a growing group of energy-smart companies committed to improving their energy productivity and doing more with less green-house gas emission.
• India’s own Mahindra group is one of the leaders in the ongoing battle to cut energy consumption and carbon dioxide emissions by increasingly switching to renewable energy.
9. Under2 Coalition [UPSC 2022]
• It is a global community of state and regional governments committed to ambitious climate action in line with the Paris Agreement.
• Signatories commit to keeping global temperature rises to well below 2°C with efforts to reach 1.5°C.
• It brings together over 270 governments representing 1.75 billion people and 50% of the global economy.
10. International Energy Agency (IEA) [UPSC 2022]
• Established in 1974 as per framework of the OECD, IEA is an autonomous intergovernmental organisation.
4. Consider the following statements:
1. The Climate Group is an
international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.
2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. 3. EP100 brings together leading
companies committed to driving
innovation in energy efficiency and
increasing competitiveness while
delivering on emission reduction
goals.
4. Some Indian companies are
members of EP100.
5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2
Coalition”.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1,2, 4 and 5
(b) 1,3 and 4 only
(c) 2,3 and 5 only
(d) 1,2, 3, 4 and 5
• Four areas: energy security, economic development, environmental awareness and engagement worldwide.
• Headquarters at Paris, France.
• Composition and eligibility: It has 30 members at present. IEA family also includes eight association countries. A candidate country must be a member country of the OECD. But all OECD members are not IEA members.
• Reports: Global Energy & CO2 Status Report; World Energy Outlook; World Energy Statistics; World Energy Balances and Energy Technology Perspectives.
11. Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) [UPSC 2018]
• It is a UN Mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies emerged at Rio+20 (the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development) was held in Brazil in 2012.
• PAGE deploys the expertise and broad convening power of five UN agencies whose mandates, expertise combined can offer integrated and holistic support to countries on greener and more inclusive growth trajectories.
o International Labour Organization (ILO)
o United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
o United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO)
o United Nations Institute for Training and Research (UNITAR) and
o United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
• It represents a mechanism to coordinate UN action on green economy and to assist countries in achieving and monitoring the emerging Sustainable Development Goals, especially SDG 8.
Q 3. The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at
(a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
(b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
(c) The United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris
(d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi
12. Global Alliance for Climate Smart Agriculture (GACSA) [UPSC 2018]
• GACSA is an inclusive, voluntary and action-oriented multi-stakeholder platform on Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA).
• Its vision is to improve food security, nutrition and resilience in the face of climate change. GACSA aims to catalyze and help create transformational partnerships to encourage actions that reflect an integrated approach to the three pillars of CSA.
• Concept of Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA) was originally developed by FAO and officially presented and at Hague Conference on Agriculture, Food Security and Climate Change in 2010.
• Membership in the Alliance does not create any binding obligations and each member individually determines the nature of its participation.
• India is just a signatory to GACSA.
Q 10. With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture’ (GACSA) which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. GACSA is an outcome of the
climate summit held in Paris in
2015
2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations
3. India was instrumental in the
creation of GACSA
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
13. Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now [UPSC 2018]
• Initiative launched by UNFCCC secretariat to increase climate action by engaging non Party stakeholders (sub-national govts, companies, organizations, individuals) in 2015.
• It promotes voluntary use of carbon market mechanisms recognized under Convention.
• The initiative is not a certification scheme for its participants.
• Tool to promote additional voluntary action on climate, and to provide recognition for it.
• An organization can become a participant by signing the Climate Neutral Now Pledge, following the three steps (Measure, Reduce, Contribute) and reporting on its actions and achievements annually.
Q 11. “Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by [Based on Current Affairs 2017-18]
(a) The Intergovernmental Panel on climate change
(b) The UNEP Secretariat
(c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
(d) The World Meteorological Organization
14. Global Climate Change alliance [UPSC 2017]
• It is an initiative of the European Union. • It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to
Q 8. With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an initiative of the European Union
integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing
countries to integrate climate
change into their development
budgets
3. It is coordinated by World
Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable
Development (WBCSD)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
15. National Action Plan on Climate Change: Launched in 2008 by PM Council on Climate Change. 8 national missions form core which represent multi-pronged, long term and integrated strategies.
• National Solar Mission: Governed by MoNRE + Target of JNNSM enhanced to 100 GW by 2022->includes 60GW (large and medium grid solar projects) and 40GW (rooftop solar).
• National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE): Improve energy efficiency + Governed by Ministry of Power; commenced in 2010 to achieve GHG reduction of 98.55 million tonnes/year + Annual fuel savings of 23 million tonnes.
• National Mission for Sustainable Habitat: Governed by Ministry of Housing and urban affairs + It commenced in 2010 with aim to reduce emission in cities + It focuses on GHG reduction opportunities by increasing energy efficiency of building, improving SWM.
• National Water Mission: Governed by Ministry of Jal Shakti + Commenced in 2011 with aim to ensure water security and improve access to water resources + It covers entire sweep of water management to fight climate change impacts.
Q 1. Which of the following best describes/ describe the aim of the ‘Green India Mission’ of the Government of India?
1. Incorporating environmental
benefits and costs into the Union
and State Budgets thereby
implementing the `green
accounting’
2. Launching the second green
revolution to enhance agricultural
output so as to ensure food security to one and all in the future
3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and responding to climate
change by a combination of
adaptation and mitigation measures
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
• National Mission for Sustaining Himalayan Ecosystem: Governed by DoS&T + Commenced in 2011 + It is aimed at developing capacity to assess health status of Himalayan ecosystem.
• National Mission on Strategic knowledge for Climate change: Governed by DoS&T + It aimed at establishment of knowledge network among existing knowledge institutions.
• National Mission for Green India: Governed by MoEF&CC, commenced in 2014 + Aimed to increase forest and tree cover + It envisages a holistic view of greening and focuses on multiple ecosystem services, especially, biodiversity, water, biomass, preserving mangroves, wetlands, critical habitats etc. along with carbon sequestration as a co benefit. [UPSC 2016]
• National Mission for Sustainable agriculture: Commenced in 2012 aimed to climate-proof agriculture and reduce emissions from sector. Four components
are:
o Soil Health Management->aimed at nutrient management through
judicious use of chemical fertilizers.
o Rain-fed area development to develop agri-land under integrated
farming system.
o Sub-Mission on agro-forestry to promote plantation along with crops.
o Climate change and sustainable agriculture: Monitoring, Modeling
and Networking (CCSAMMN) for
creating models on adaptation and
dissemination of information about
climate change.
16. UN REDD Program = It is collaborative initiative of FAO, UNDP and UNEP + Multilateral body which partners with developing countries by assisting them to develop capacities needed to meet UNFCCC REDD+ requirements + It has country-based approach that provides advisory and technical support tailored to national circumstances. [UPSC 2016]
Q 6. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Proper design and effective implementation of UN-REDD+ Programme can significantly contribute to
1. protection of biodiversity
2. resilience of forest ecosystems 3. poverty reduction
17. REDD+: Climate change mitigation solution developed by parties to UNFCCC + It incentivizes developing countries to keep their forest standing by offering results-based payments to remove forest carbon emissions.
• REDD+ in UNFCCC: First negotiated in UNFCC 2005 (COP-11) + In 2013, seven decisions on REDD+ produced known as “Warsaw Framework on REDD-Plus” + REDD+ goes beyond deforestation and forest degradation and includes role of conservation, sustainable management of forests and enhancement of carbon stocks + UNFCCC rulebook on REDD+ finalized in COP-21 in 2015 + It has identified the following three topics for supporting national REDD+ governance structures, with an overarching principle of stakeholder participation:
o Country-led multi-stakeholder governance assessments that contribute
to the development and implementation
of national REDD+ strategies (for
tackling forest degradation and
biodiversity loss) and nationally owned
monitoring frameworks.
o Social standards, including poverty and gender.
o Land and/or carbon tenure and the role of REDD+ within national land use
strategies.
• India’s REDD+ Strategy: Prepared by Indian Council for Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), Dehradun + It builds upon existing national circumstances updated in line with NAPCC, Green India Mission and INDCs + Please Note: ICFRE is an autonomous organisation or governmental agency under the Ministry of Environment and Forests, Government of India.
18. Differences between REDD and REDD+ • UN REDD: Headquarters at Geneva, Switzerland + 64 partner countries + multilateral collaborative programme of FAO, UNDP and UNEP + created in 2008 in response to the UNFCCC decisions on the Bali Action Plan and REDD at COP-13 + It partners with developing countries to support them in establishing the technical
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
capacities needed to implement REDD+ and meet UNFCCC requirements for REDD.
• REDD+: Voluntary climate change mitigation approach developed by parties to the UNFCCC + It goes beyond simply deforestation and forest degradation + It incentivize developing countries to reduce emissions from deforestation and forest degradation, conserve forest carbon stocks, sustainably manage forests + Developing countries would receive results-based payments for results-based actions. +In addition to UN-REDD programme, World Bank’s Forest Carbon Partnership Facility, GEF and GCF also assist it.
19. Agenda 21 [UPSC 2016]
• It is a non-binding voluntarily implemented action plan of United Nations with regard to sustainable development.
• It is a comprehensive plan of action to be taken globally, nationally and locally by organizations of UN system, governments and major groups in every area.
• It is adopted at UN Conference on Environment and Development (Rio Summit), 1992.
Q 7. With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements :
1. It is a global action plan for sustainable development
2. It originated in the World Summit on Sustainable Development held in
Johannesburg in 2002
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
20. Biocarbon fund initiative [UPSC 2015] • It is a multilateral fund supported by donor governments and managed by World Bank.
• It promotes and rewards reduced GHG emissions through better land management, including REDD + and Climate smart agriculture.
• It was established in 2013.
• It is supported by Germany, Norway, Switzerland, UK and USA.
Q 2. ‘BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the
(a) Asian Development Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) United Nations Environment Programme (d) World Bank
21. Green Climate Fund (GCF) [UPSC 2015]: Established at COP-16 at Cancun in 2010; chief instrument of fulfilling developed countries collective promise to put $100bn annually by 2020; mechanism to redistribute money from developed to developing world.
• COP 16 ==> Decision Made to establish GCF.
• COP 17 ==> Parties approved the Governing Instrument for the GCF ==> Legal approval
• COP 18 ==> Songdo, Incheon, Republic of Korea hosted GCF.
• Structure: Fund governed by GCF board consisting of 24 members equally divided between developed and developing countries; accountable to and functions under COP to support projects; independent secretariat in Songdo, Republic of Korea; World Bank serves as interim trustee of GCF.
Q 13. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct?
1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change
2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and
World Bank
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
22. Global Environment Facility (GEF) [UPSC 2014]
• Setup as a fund under World Bank in 1991. • Moved out of WB system during Rio Earth summit in 1992 to become permanent and separate institution.
• Multilateral grants to developing countries+ Based in Washington DC.
• It serves as a financial mechanism for CBD, UNFCCC, UNCCD, Stockholm convention on PoPs, Minamata convention on mercury.
• India is both donor and recipient of GEF+ It also supports implementation of Montreal protocol in countries with economies in transition.
• financial contribution is replenished every four years by GEF 39 donor countries.
• The funds available to developing countries and economies in transition.
• Six designated focal areas are Biodiversity, climate change, international waters, ozone depletion, land degradation and persistent organic pollutants.
Q 1. With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) It serves as financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change’
(b) It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at global level
(c) It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with specific aim to protect their environment
(d) Both (a) and (b)
23. Earth Hour [UPSC 2014]
• Earth Hour is a global movement for environmental conservation started by World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) in 2007.
• It is an annual event, that takes place on the last Saturday of March.
• Aim: To call attention to global warming, loss of biodiversity, and climate change.
• During the Earth Hour, people turn off their lights for an hour as a sign of global solidarity.
• Theme for 2022: “Shape our Future
Q 19. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Earth Hour’
1. It is an initiative of UNEP and
UNESCO
2. It is a movement in which the
participants switch off the lights
for one hour on a certain day every year
3. It is a movement to raise
awareness about climate change
and the need to save the planet
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
24. TRAFFIC [UPSC 2017]
• It is a wildlife trade monitoring network and NGO working globally on the trade of wild animals and plants.
• It is founded in 1976 as a strategic alliance of WWF and IUCN headquartered at Cambridge, United Kingdom.
• It aims to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.
• Governed by the TRAFFIC Committee, composed of members of TRAFFIC's partner organizations, WWF and IUCN.
• It also works in close co-operation with the secretariat of CITES.
Q 1. Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC):
1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme
(UNEP)
2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to
ensure that trade in wild animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
25. IUCN [UPSC 2015]
• It is a membership union uniquely composed of both government and civil society organizations.
• It is created in 1948, it is the global authority on the status of the natural world.
• It is headquartered in Switzerland.
• IUCN Red List of threatened Species, is the world's most comprehensive inventory of
Q 8. With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an
the global conservation status of plant and animal species.
• It runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments.
26. CITES [UPSC 2015]: It is also known as Washington convention is a multilateral treaty to protect endangered plants and animals + It is entered into force in July 1975; 183 parties + Secretariat is administered by UNEP and is located at Geneva, Switzerland.
• Aim: Ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten survival of species in wild-> bans hunting, capturing and selling of endangered or threatened species.
• Functions
o Subjecting international trade in specimens of selected species to certain
controls.
o All import, export, re-export and introduction from the sea of species
covered by the convention has to be
authorized through a licensing system.
o Each party must designate one or more Management authorities in charge of
administering that licensing system and
one or more scientific authorities to
advise them on the effects of trade on the
status of the species.
• Conference of Parties (COP): Supreme decision-making body and comprises all its Parties.
• Legally binding: CITES is legally binding on the parties although it does not take place of national laws.
• Appendix I: Species threatened with extinction-> trade permitted only in exceptional circumstances.
• Appendix II: Species not necessarily threatened with extinction, but in which trade must be controlled to avoid utilization incompatible with their survival.
• Appendix III: Species that are protected in at least one country, which has asked other CITES parties for assistance in controlling trade.
international agreement between
governments
2. IUCN runs thousands of field
projects around the world to better manage natural environments
3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this
Convention does not take the place of national laws
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
27. Polar Code [UPSC 2022]
• The International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters (the Polar Code) is a new code adopted by the IMO which entered into force on 1 January 2017.
• It acknowledges that polar waters may impose additional demands on ships beyond those normally encountered.
• It is mandatory under both the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS) and the International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL).
• It covers the full range of design, construction, equipment, operational, training, search and rescue and environmental protection matters relevant to ships operating in the inhospitable waters surrounding the two poles.
• It applies to certain ships that will operate on domestic or international voyages in Arctic or Antarctic waters.
15. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?
(a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
(b) It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.
(c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.
(d) It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.
28. United Nations Capital Development Fund [UPSC 2021]: It was established by the United Nations General Assembly(UNGA) in 1966 + Its objective is to provide microfinance access to Least Developed Countries (LDCs) + It is an autonomous, voluntarily funded UN organization affiliated with UNDP + Funding comes from UN member states, foundations, and the private sector + It is headquartered at New York + Financing model work through two channels: Financial Inclusion and localized investments.
29. Tree City of the World [UPSC 2021]: Hyderabad is the only city from India to have been recognised as a 2020 Tree City of the World by the Arbor Day Foundation and the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) for its commitment to growing and maintaining urban forests.
30. Hyderabad was selected for the recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the urban forests. Hyderabad earned recognition in the Foundation’s second year of the programme along with 51 other cities globally (120 cities from 63 countries assessed) and the only city in India to get this recognition so far. Through this recognition, Hyderabad
1. Statement 1:
The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World Statement 2:
Hyderabad was selected for recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the Urban forests.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1
(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct.
(d) Statement 1 is not correct but
Statement 2 is correct.
joins a network of like-minded cities who recognise the importance of trees in building healthy, resilient and happy cities.
31. Arbor Day Foundation: It is a nonprofit conservation and education organization founded in 1972 in Nebraska, United States, by John Rosenow + It is the largest nonprofit membership organization dedicated to tree planting + Its vision is to help others understand and use trees as a solution to global issues such as air quality, water quality, poverty, and hunger.
32. Climate Smart Village: CCAFS proposes to address the fundamental questions via participatory research at Climate-Smart Villages (CSVs), sites ranging from village to district scale at which portfolios of CSA interventions are tested in a globally comparable manner with farmers, development agencies and the private sector. [UPSC 2021]
33. Climate Smart Agriculture: It is an approach that helps guide actions to transform agri-food systems towards green and climate resilient practices + It aims to tackle three main objectives: sustainably increasing agricultural productivity and incomes; adapting and building resilience to climate change; and reducing and/or removing greenhouse gas emissions, where possible + It supports the FAO Strategic Framework 2022-2031 based on the Four Betters: better production, better nutrition, a better environment and a better life for all, leaving no one behind. [UPSC 2021]
34. ICRISAT (50th Anniversary): It is an international organization which conducts agricultural research for rural development + Headquartered at Patancheru, Hyderabad + Founded in 1972 by a consortium of organisations convened by the Ford and the Rockefeller foundations + Charter was signed by the FAO and the UNDP + It conducts its research under four themes: Agro-ecosystems development, Harnessing plant biotechnology and bioinformatics, Crop improvement and management, and Institutions, Markets, policy and Impacts + It is managed by a full-time Director General functioning under the overall guidance of an international Governing Board + It founded the Smart Food Initiative in 2013 with the vision to create a world where food is
2. In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-smart Agriculture, consider the following statements:
1. The ‘Climate-Smart village’ approach in India is a part of a project led by climate change, Agriculture and food security (CCAFS), an international research programme.
2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR)
headquartered in France.
3. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics
(ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’S research centers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
‘Smart’ – good for you, the planet and the farmer + ICRISAT genebank serves as a repository for the collection of germplasm of the six mandate crops – sorghum, pearl millet, finger millet, chickpea, pigeonpea and groundnut; and five small millets – foxtail millet, little millet, kodo millet, proso millet and barnyard millet + It is headquartered in Hyderabad, Telangana, India, with two regional hubs and six country offices in sub-Saharan Africa. It is one of the CGIAR’s research centres. [UPSC 2021]
35. New York Declaration on Forests (2014) [UPSC 2021]
• Endorsement: The New York Declaration on Forests (NYDF) is a political declaration calling for global action to protect and restore forests. It is first endorsed at United Nations Secretary-General's Climate Summit held in New York in 2014.
• Timeline: The declaration includes ambitious targets to end natural forest loss by 2030, with a 50% reduction by 2020 as a milestone toward its achievement.
• Legality: It is a voluntary and non-legally binding political declaration.
• Stakeholders: It grew out of dialogue among governments, companies and civil Society and indigenous communities.
• Signatories: It is currently endorsed by over 190 entities including more than 50 governments, more than 50 of the world’s biggest companies, and more than 50 influential civil society and indigenous organizations. It is not endorsed by India.
36. Glasgow Leaders’ Declaration on Forests and Land Use: It is an ambitious declaration initiated by United Kingdom to “halt deforestation” and land degradation by 2030 + India is not a signatory as it objected to “trade” being interlinked to climate change and forest issues in the agreement + It has over 105 signatories including the UK, US, Russia and China.
5. With reference to the ‘’New York Declaration on Forests’’, which of the following statements are correct?
1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014
2. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests
3. It is a legally binding international declaration
4. It is endorsed by governments, big companies and indigenous communities. 5. India was one of the signatories at its inception
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 5
37. R2 Code of Practices [UPSC 2021]
• R2 stands for Responsible Recycling; It is a standard created for the electronics
12. “R2 Code of Practices” constitute a tool available for promoting the adoption of
recycling industry by Sustainable Electronics Recycling International (SERI). • Expected outcomes of certification of R2 Standard: An electronics recycling company that is R2 certified will benefit by achieving higher profit margins and additional market share through improvements in its operating systems and processes, and the status bestowed by certification + It will be able to assure its upstream clients and customers that it takes appropriate measures at its facility to protect the environment, worker and public health, and data security.
• Authorization: Only International Accreditation Forum (IAF) multilateral recognition arrangement signatory accreditation bodies (ABs) meeting the requirements of this Code of Practices and authorized by R2 Solutions may accredit CBs.
• SERI: It is the housing body and ANSI - accredited Standards Development Organization for the R2 Standard + Stakeholders who contributed to the creation of these standards include the U.S. Environmental protection agency; regulators from state agencies; electronics recyclers, refurbishers, and their trade associations; OEMs/customers of electronics recycling services; and non -
governmental organizations
(a) Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry (b) Ecological management of ‘’Wetlands of International Importance” under the Ramsar Convention
(c) Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands (d) ‘’Environmental Impact Assessment’’ in the exploitation of natural resources
38. UN-HABITAT: It is a UN agency responsible for sustainable urban development and human settlements + It is an intergovernmental body established in 1978 + It is headquartered at UN Office at Nairobi, Kenya + It promotes socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities with the goal of providing adequate shelter for all + It is also a member of UNDP + It focuses on seven areas: Urban Legislation, Land and Governance; Urban Planning and Design; Urban Economy; Urban Basic Services; Housing and Slum Upgrading; Risk Reduction and Rehabilitation; Urban Research and Capacity Development + World cities report is published by UN-HABITAT. [UPSC 2017]
Q 9. With reference to the role of UN Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General
Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate
shelter for all
2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only
3. UN-Habitat contributes to the
overall objective of the United
Nations system to reduce poverty
and to promote access to safe
drinking water and basic sanitation
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
39. Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) [UPSC 2016]
• Sustainable development Goals (SDGs) is an intergovernmental agreement formulated to act as post 2015 Development agenda, its predecessor being Millennium Development Goals.
• It is a group of 17 goals with 169 targets and 304 indicators, as proposed by the United Nation General Assembly’s Open Working Group on Sustainable Development Goalsto be achieved by 2030.
• SDGs is the outcome of Rio+20 conference (2012) held in Rio De Janerio and is a non binding document.
Q 10. Consider the following statements:
1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the
‘Club of Rome’
2. The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
40. Birdlife International [UPSC 2015]
• It was founded in 1922 as International Council for Bird Preservation; changed its name to “Birdlife International” in 1993.
• It is a global partnership of conservation organizations that strives to conserve birds, their habitats working with people towards sustainability in the use of natural resources.
• It is the world’s largest partnership of conservation organizations, with over 120 partner organizations.
• Its global office is in Cambridge, UK with 6 regional offices – Africa, the Americas, Asia, Europe and Central Asia, the Middle East and the Pacific.
• World Birdwatch -> It is a quarterly magazine which contains recent news and authoritative articles about birds, their habitats, and their conservation around the world.
• It is the official Red List authority for birds, for IUCN.
• Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA) programme aims to identify, monitor and protect a global network of IBAs for conservation of world’s birds and other wildlife.
Q 5. With reference to an organization known as ‘Birdlife International’ which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a Global Partnership of
Conservation Organizations
2. The concept of ‘biodiversity
hotspots’ originated from this
organization
3. It identifies the sites
known/referred to as ‘Important
Bird and Biodiversity Areas’
4. Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
CHAPTER 8: INSTITUTIONS & ORGANISATIONS - INDIA PRELIMS PYQ CONTENT – UPSC CSE EXAM – Topic-wise Segregated
1. National Green Tribunal [UPSC 2018] • NGT Act, 2010: Provided for establishment of a NGT for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environment protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property.
• Mandate: Speedy environment justice, help reduce burden of litigation in higher courts + Disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same.
• Branches: Principle Bench in New Delhi + Regional benches in Pune, Bhopal, Chennai and Kolkata.
• Structure of NGT: The Tribunal comprises of the Chairperson, the Judicial Members and Expert Members; term of five years and are not eligible for reappointment + The Chairperson is appointed by the Central Government in consultation with CJI + A Selection Committee shall be formed by central government to appoint the Judicial Members and Expert Members + There are to be least 10 and maximum 20 full time Judicial members and Expert Members in the tribunal.
• Members: Chairperson of NGT is a retired judge of the SC + Other judicial members are retired judge of the High courts.
• Each Bench-> At least 1 judicial member and one expert member; expert members should have professional qualification and a minimum of 15yrs of experience in field of environment/ forest conservation.
• The NGT deals with civil cases under the seven laws related to the environment, these include:
o The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
Q 9. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?
1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been
created by an executive order of the government
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts
whereas the CPCB promotes
cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in
the country
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
o The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977
o The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 o The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
o The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
o The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 and
o The Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
• Note: NGT has not been vested with powers to hear cases relating to Wildlife protection act, 1972, Indian Forest act, 1927 and various laws enacted by states relating to forests, tree preservation etc.
• NGT by an order, can provide: Relief and compensation to the victims of pollution and other environmental damage including accident occurring while handling any hazardous substance + For restitution of property damaged, and for restitution of the environment for such area or areas, as the Tribunal may think fit.
• The NGT Act also provides a procedure for a penalty for noncompliance: Imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years, Fine which may extend to ten crore rupees, and Both fine and imprisonment.
• Principles: Not guided by Code of Civil procedure, 1908 but guided by Principles of natural justice + It is also not bound by Indian Evidence act, 1872.
• Review appeal can be made to NGT + If review appeal fails, NGT order can be challenged before Supreme court within ninety days.
• Others: India became the third country in the world to set up a specialised environmental tribunal, after Australia and New Zealand, and first developing country to do so.
2. Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) [UPSC 2018]
• It is a statutory body constituted under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974; entrusted with the powers and functions under Air
(Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
• It serves as field formation and provide technical services to MoEF&CC of provisions of EPA,1986; coordinates activities of SPCBs.
• Functions of the CPCB: They are spelt out in the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981,
o to promote cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the States by
prevention, control and abatement of
water pollution, and
o to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution
in the country.
3. Central Water commission [UPSC 2022] • It is a premier technical Organization of India in the field of Water Resources and is presently functioning as an attached office of the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation, GoI.
• Functions
o General responsibilities of initiating, coordinating and furthering in
consultation of the State Governments
concerned, schemes for control,
conservation and utilization of water
resources throughout the country, for
purpose of Flood Control, Irrigation,
Navigation, Drinking Water Supply
and Water Power Development.
o It also undertakes the investigations, construction and execution of any
such schemes as required.
4. Central Ground water board
• It is a national apex organization with responsibility to carry out scientific surveys, exploration, monitoring of development, management and regulation
of country’s vast groundwater resources for irrigation, drinking, domestic and industrial needs.
• Established in 1954, CGWB functions under the Ministry of Water Resources.
14. Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment
(Protection) Act, 1986?
(a) Central Water Commission
(b) Central Ground Water Board
(c) Central Ground Water Authority
(d) National Water Development Agency
• Mandate:
o To Develop and disseminate technologies, and monitor and
implement national policies for the
Scientific and Sustainable
development and management of
India’s Ground Water Resources,
including their exploration,
assessment, conservation,
augmentation, protection from
pollution and distribution, based on
principles of economic and ecological
efficiency and equity.
5. Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA)
• It has been constituted by the Government under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act (EPA) of 1986, and it has the mandate to regulate and control development and management of water resources in the country.
• CGWA guidelines: It grants NOC to industries requiring ground water for mixed use i.e. industrial process and drinking & domestic purpose shall be granted only for such cases where adequate public water supply/ surface water source does not exist.
6. National Water Development agency (NWDA)
• NWDA is the agency of the Union Ministry of Water Resources.
• It was set up in July, 1982 as autonomous society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.
• It was established to carry out the water balance and other studies on a scientific and realistic basis for optimum utilisation of Water Resources of the Peninsular rivers system.
• In 1990, it was entrusted with the task of Himalayan Rivers Development Component of National Perspectives.
• It has been also entrusted to prepare feasibility reports of intra-State links as proposed by the States.
7. India Sanitation Coalition (ISC) [UPSC 2022]
• It was launched in June 2015, at FICCI-> enables and supports safe and sustainable sanitation by bringing multiple organizations on a common platform through a range of catalytic actions.
• These include supporting the unlocking of WASH financing with focus on the private sector, forging partnerships with allied organizations for leading the discourse on sustainable sanitation;
• Note: It is not funded by WHO.
13. Consider the following statements:
1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable
sanitation and is funded by the
Government of India and the World
Health Organisation.
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of
Housing and Urban Affairs in
Government of India and provides
innovative solutions to address the
challenges of Urban India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. Animal Welfare Board of India [UPSC 2014]
• It is a statutory advisory body established under Section 4 of Prevention of Cruelty to Animals act,1960.
• Advise GOI on animal welfare laws. • Provides grants to animal welfare organizations.
• Publications to raise awareness of various animal welfare issues.
• Rukmini Devi Arundale pioneered the setting of board with HQ’s at Chennai.
• The board consists of 28 members; term of office is 3 years.
9. National tiger conservation authority (NTCA) [UPSC 2014]: It is a statutory body constituted under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 + It was established in 2005 on recommendation of Tiger Task force to aid in implementation of measures for conservation of tiger + It comes under MoEF&CC + It cooperates with bodies such as CBI, WCCB by issuing alerts for any illegal poaching activities; administers Project Tiger and tiger reserves.
• Composition:
o Set up under the chairmanship of the minister for environment and
forests.
Q 14. Consider the following statements :
1. Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Environments (Protection) Act, 1986
2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body
3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister
Which if the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
o Eight experts having qualifications and experience in wildlife
conservation and welfare of people
including tribals, apart from 3 MPs
(two will be elected by Los Sabha and
one by Rajya Sabha).
• Objectives
o Providing statutory authority to Project Tiger so that compliance of its
directives become legal.
o Fostering accountability of Center State in management of tiger
reserves, by providing a basis for
MoU with States within our federal
structure.
o Providing for an oversight by Parliament.
o Addressing livelihood interests of local people in areas surrounding
tiger reserves.
• Powers and Functions of NTCA
o Provide central assistance to states under ongoing Project Tiger and for
activities based on tiger conservation
plan.
o Conducts every four years, the countrywide assessment of status of
tiger, co-predators, prey and habitat
using refined methodology approved
by Tiger task force.
o Approve the tiger conservation plan prepared by the State Government.
o To approve, co-ordinate research and monitoring on tiger, co
predators, prey habitat and their
evaluation.
o Evaluate and assess various aspects of sustainable ecology and disallow
any ecologically unsustainable land
use such as, mining, industry etc.
o To ensure critical support including scientific, information technology
and legal support for better
implementation of the tiger
conservation plan.
o No alteration in boundaries of a tiger reserve shall be made except on
a recommendation of the NTCA and
the approval of NBWL.
o No State Government shall de-notify a tiger reserve, except in public
interest with approval of NTCA and
the approval of the NBWL.
10. National Ganga River Basin Authority • Established in 2009 under Environment Protection Act, 1986).
• It is a financing, planning implementing, monitoring, coordinating authorities for Ganga under Jal Shakti Ministry.
• Transferred from Ministry of Environment and Forests to Ministry of Jal Shakti in 2014.
• PM is the Chairperson. In 2016, it was changed to National Ganga Council (NGC).
CHAPTER 9: ACTS AND POLICIES RELATED TO BIODIVERSITY PRELIMS PYQ CONTENT – UPSC CSE EXAM – Topic-wise Segregated
1. Wildlife (Protection) act, 1972
• Definition of wildlife: It include any animals, bees, butterflies, fish and moths; and aquatic or land vegetation which form part of any habitat.
• Jurisdiction: The act extends to whole of India. After enactment of Jammu & Kashmir Reorganization Act, 2019, Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 also became applicable to the Union territory of Jammu & Kashmir.
• Five types of protected areas: National parks, Wildlife sanctuaries, community reserves, conservation reserves and tiger reserves.
• Key provisions: Prohibition of hunting, protection and management of wildlife habitats, establishment of protected areas, management of zoos etc.
• Prohibition of Hunting
o Prohibition of hunting: It prohibits the hunting of any wild animal
specified in Schedules I, II, III and IV
of the act.
▪ Exception: A wild animal listed
under these schedules can be
hunted only after getting
permission from the Chief Wildlife
Warden of the state if it becomes
dangerous to human life or to
property or is disabled or suffering
from a disease that is beyond
recovery.
• Six schedules
o Schedule I and Part II of Schedule II: It provides for absolute protection-
> highest penalties.
o Schedule 3 and 4: The penalties for offences under these schedules are less
and these animals are protected.
o Schedule 5: Vermins includes animals which can be hunted. For instance,
common crow, mice and rats.
o Schedule 6: Plants which are prohibited from cultivation and
planting. These mainly include
Q 16. If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife
Protection Act,
1972, what is the implication?
(a) A licence is required to cultivate that plant
(b) Such a plant cannot be cultivated under any circumstances
(c) It is a Genetically Modified crop plant
(d) Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the ecosystem
medicinal plants such as Beddomes
cyad, Blue vanda, Kutch, Ladies
slippers orchids, pitcher plant, red
vanda. The hunting to the Enforcement
authorities have the power to
compound offences under this
Schedule (i.e. they impose fines on the
offenders). The schedule has been
added to include specified plants
species to be protected by Wildlife
(Protection) amendment act of 1991.
[UPSC 2020]
• Specified Plants
o Definition: The wildlife Protection Act defines "specified plant" as any
plant specified in Schedule VI.
o It further states that "Cultivation of specified plants without license
prohibited. - (1) no person shall
cultivate a specified plant except
under, and in accordance with a license
granted by the Chief Wildlife Warden
or any other officer authorized by the
State Government in this behalf; 2)
Every license granted under this
section shall specify the area in which
and the conditions, if any, subject to
which the licensee shall cultivate a
specified plant."
2. Gharial (Gravialis gangeticus), Indian Wild Ass (Equus hemionus khur) and Wild Buffalo (Bubalus bubalis) are all mentioned under Schedule I for the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 -> so they cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law. [UPSC 2017]
Q 7. According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?
1. Gharial
2. Indian wild ass
3. Wild Buffalo
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Indian Forest act, 1927 [UPSC 2019]
Q 18. Consider the following statements:
• Objective: To consolidate the then existing laws of forests and duties that can be levied on forest products.
• Reserved Forest: Notified by states on any forest land to which government has ownership rights.
• Protected Forest: The state government can declare any portion of protected forest as closed for a term not exceeding 30 years during which rights of private persons can be suspended.
• Village Forest: The State government may assign to any village community the rights of Government to any land which has been constituted as reserve forest.
• Powers to Central Government: It gives power to central government to regulate timber production and its transportation.
4. Indian Forest (Amendment) Bill 2018: It permits felling and transit of bamboo grown in non-forest areas. However, bamboo grown on forest lands would continue to be classified as a tree and would be guided by the existing legal restrictions.
5. Forest Rights act, 2006 [UPSC 2019]
• Objective: It provides for restitution
of deprived forest rights across
India, including both individual
rights to cultivated land in
forestland and community
resources over common property
resources.
• Nodal Agency: Ministry of Tribal
affairs
• National parks and sanctaries
included along with reserve forest,
protected forests for recognition of
rights.
• Definition of Minor Forest
produce: It includes all non-timber
forest produce of plant origin,
including bamboo, brush, wood,
stumps, tendu, kendu leaves etc.
• It gave tribals and other traditional
forest dwellers the “right of
ownership, access to collect, use and
dispose of minor forest produce,
which has been traditionally collected
within or outside village boundaries.”
• Four types of rights
o Title rights
▪ It gives Forest dwelling scheduled
tribes and other traditional forest
dwellers the right to ownership to
1. As per the recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest
dwellers have the right to fell the
bamboos grown on forest areas
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers
(Recognition of Forest Rights) Act,
2006, bamboo is a minor forest
produce
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers
(Recognition Forest Rights) Act,
2006 allows ownership of minor
forest produce to forest dwellers
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
land farmed by tribals or forest
dwellers subject to a maximum of 4
hectares.
▪ Ownership is restricted for land that
is actually being cultivated by the
concerned family and no new lands
will be granted.
o Use rights
▪ The rights of the dwellers extend to
extracting Minor Forest Produce,
grazing areas, to pastoralist routes,
etc.
o Relief and development rights
▪ To rehabilitation in case of illegal
eviction or forced displacement,
subject to restrictions for forest
protection.
o Forest management rights
▪ Right to protect, regenerate or
conserve or manage any community
forest resource which they have been
traditionally protecting and
conserving for sustainable use.
• Nature of rights: The rights under the act shall be heritable but not alienable
or transferrable.
• Competent authority: The Gram Sabha has been designated as
competent authority for initiating
process of determining the nature and
extent of individual or community forest
rights that may be given to forest
dwelling scheduled tribes.
6. Wildlife Protection in India [UPSC 2022] • Bombay High Court -> wild animals including tiger should be treated as "government property for all purposes" and any damage caused by them should be compensated by the Government.
• Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, does not discriminate between animals found in protected areas and outside. It provides for equal protection for wild animals irrespective of where they are found.
• Only if the wild animal becomes a danger to human life or is diseased or disabled beyond recovery can it be allowed to be captured or killed by the competent authority, the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State-> applicable to wild animals listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
17. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:
1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to
human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
CHAPTER 10: PLANT AND ANIMAL DIVERSITY
PRELIMS PYQ CONTENT – UPSC CSE EXAM – Topic-wise Segregated
1. Gucchi [UPSC 2022]
• Guchhi mushroom is a species of fungus in the family Morchellaceae of the Ascomycota.
• They are pale yellow in colour with large pits and ridges on the surface of the cap, raised on a large white stem.
• It is grown in the foothills of Himalayas in Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, and Jammu and Kashmir.
• They cannot be cultivated commercially and grow in conifer forests across temperature regions.
• They are rich in potassium, vitamin D, copper and several B-Vitamins.
7. With reference to “Gucchi”
sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements:
1. It is a fungus.
2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas.
3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of
north-eastern India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
2. Hedgehog: It is an insectivorous spiny (needle-like anatomical structure) mammal of the subfamily Erinaceidae. It curls his head and feet into his body and forms a ball to protect his soft, delicate underside. [UPSC 2021]
• IUCN Red List: Least Concern; Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule 4 + Found throughout parts of Europe, Asia, and Africa, and New Zealand. Three species found in India:
o Indian Long-eared: It is native to northern India and Pakistan; mainly follow their excellent sense of hearing for the hunt, as their eyesight is quite poor.
o Indian hedgehog: It is native to India and Pakistan. It mainly lives in sandy desert areas but can be found in other environments.
o Bare-bellied or Madras hedgehog: Called mul eli – mul meaning thorn in Tamil and eli meaning rat – or irmal eli aka cough rat; it is used as an ingredient in traditional medicine, or in household remedies for coughs and rheumatism.
3. Marmot: It belongs to the squirrel family (Sciuridae) within the order Rodentia + well suited for life in cold environments and have small fur covered ears, short, stocky legs, and strong claws for digging + Marmots are diurnal (active during the day) and are almost entirely vegetarian + They are found primarily in the continents of Europe, Asia
4. Consider the following animals 1. Hedgehog
2. Marmot
3. Pangolin
To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protect its/their vulnerable parts?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3
and North America + While digging burrows, marmots increase aeration in the soil which increases nutrient circulation and helps different plants to propagate + Threats include hunting for meat and fur + It whistles to warn the others in the area, after which it typically hides in a nearby rock pile until there is no more threat. Due to the absence of scales or spines, they do not roll up and protect their vulnerable parts. [UPSC 2021]
4. Pangolin: These are only mammals wholly-covered in scales and use them to protect themselves from predators in the wild. Upon seeing predator, it immediately curls into a tight ball and use their sharp-scaled tails to defend themselves. [UPSC 2021]
5. Indian Pangolin: Distributed across India except in the arid region, high Himalayas and the North-East. The species also occurs in Bangladesh, Pakistan, Nepal and Sri Lanka + IUCN Status: Endangered + Wildlife Protection Act,1972: under Schedule I.
6. Chinese Pangolin: Found in Northern India, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh and Myanmar, northern Indo China, through most of Taiwan, and Southern China + Major threats are poaching, susceptible species due to its food specialization, and stenophagy + IUCN Status: Critically Endangered + Wildlife Protection Act,1972: Under Schedule I.
7. Oyster: Oysters are natural filter feeders -> they eat by pumping large volumes of water through their body. Water is pumped through the oyster’s gills by beating of cilia. Plankton, algae become trapped in the mucus of the gills. From there these particles are transported to the oyster’s mouth and esophagus to be eaten, then to the stomach to be digested. [UPSC 2021]
8. Catfish: African catfish is a carnivorous species introduced in India without official sanction + They thrive well in the freshwater lakes, rivers, swamps and urban sewage systems + It feeds on living and dead animal matter, including fish + Despite a ban imposed in 2000, farming of catfish continues in India + To protect indigenous aquatic species inside the Periyar Tiger Reserve (PTR), members of tribal eco-development committee carried out a special drive to eradicate African catfish from the Periyar lake + African catfish is also invasive in Keoladeo National park.
9. Octopus: Octopuses are sea animals famous for their rounded bodies, bulging eyes, and eight long arms + They live in all the world’s oceans but are
7. Which one of the following is a filter feeder?
(a) Catfish
(b) Octopus
(c) Oyster
(d) Pelican
especially abundant in warm, tropical waters + Most octopuses stay along Oceans floor, although some species are pelagic, which means they live near the water’s surface.
10. Spot billed Pelican/Grey Pelican: It breeds in southern Asia from southern Iran across India east to Indonesia + It is a bird of large inland and coastal waters, especially large lakes + The breeding population of these pelican species is limited to India, Sri Lanka and Cambodia + IUCN status: Near Threatened + Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule IV (Hunting prohibited but the penalty for any violation is less compared to the first two schedules).
11. Asian Elephants
• Three subspecies: Indian, Sumatran and Sri Lankan.
• Indian subspecies has the widest range and accounts for the majority of the remaining elephants on the continent.
• Conservation Status: IUCN Red List: Endangered + Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I + CITES: Appendix I.
• The elephant herd is led by the oldest and largest female member. [UPSC 2020]
• They have longest-known gestational period of all mammals, lasting up to 680 days (22 months).
• Females between 14 - 45 years may give birth to calves approximately every four years with the mean interbirth intervals increasing to five years by age 52 and six years by age 60.
• Karnataka has the highest number of elephants (6,049), followed by Assam (5,719) and Kerala (3,054).
12. Elephant census, 2017 report: The total Asian Elephant population in India is estimated at 27,312 across 23 states (a decrease over 2012); birth rate indicates elephant population is increasing; geographical range has also increased
13. Project Elephant: It was launched by GOI in 1992 as a centrally sponsored scheme; implemented in 16 states such as Assam, Arunachal, Jharkhand etc. • Objectives: Assist states having free ranging
population of wild elephants, Protect elephants, their habitats and corridors, Addressing human elephant conflict issues, Improving welfare of captive animals
Q 7. With reference to Indian
elephants, consider the following statements:
1. The leader of an elephant group is a female
2. The maximum gestation
period can be 22 months
3. An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40
years only
4. Among the States in India, the highest elephant
population is in Kerala
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
14. Monitoring the Illegal Killing of Elephants (MIKE) programme: Launched in 2003, it is an international collaboration that tracks trends in information related to illegal killing of elephants from across Africa and Asia; currently 28 sites participating in the programme in Asia distributed across 13 countries.
15. Haathi Mere Saathi: It is a campaign launched by MoEFCC and WII to improve conservation of the elephant population; launched at E-8 ministerial meeting held in Delhi in 2011; envisions setting up of Gajah centres in elephant landscapes across the country to spread awareness and encourage people’s participation.
16. Ceylon frogmouth: It is a grey-brown nocturnal bird species found in the Western Ghats and Sri Lanka’s forested habitats + It has hooked bill with slit-like nostrils and a large head with eyes facing forward. [UPSC 2020]
17. Coppersmith barbet/crimson-breasted barbet/coppersmith: It is an Asian barbet with crimson forehead and throat, known for its metronomic call that sounds similar to a coppersmith striking metal with a hammer.
18. White-throated Redstart: It is a species of bird in the Muscicapidae family found in Bhutan, China, India, Myanmar, and Nepal.
19. Grey-Chinned Minivet: It is a species of bird in the Campephagidae family found in Bangladesh, Bhutan, Cambodia, China, India, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Nepal, Taiwan, Thailand and Vietnam + natural habitat is subtropical or tropical moist lowland forests.
Q 9. With reference to India’s
biodiversity, Ceylon Frogmouth, Coppersmith Barbet, Gray Chinned Minivet and White-throated Redstart are
(a) Birds
(b) Primates
(c) Reptiles
(d) Amphibians
20. Double-humped camel [UPSC 2019]
• The Bactrian camel (Camelus bactrianus) is a large, even-toed ungulate native to the steppes of Central Asia.
• It is native of Gobi Desert and found in cold desert areas across Mongolia, India (Ladakh), China, Kazakhsthan, Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan and parts of Afghanistan.
• It is not naturally found in India.
• They are used for transportation and patrolling by the Indian Army in eastern Ladakh's treacherous terrain.
21. One-Horned Rhinoceros [UPSC 2019]
• There are five species of rhino – white rhino (near threatened), black rhinos (Critically Endangered) in Africa, greater one-horned
Q 3. Consider the following
statements:
1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only
2. Double-humped camel is
naturally found in India only
3. One-horned rhinoceros is
naturally found in India only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(vulnerable), Javan and Sumatran rhino species in Asia. (Critically Endangered).
• Only the Great One-Horned Rhino is found in India
• One-horned rhino is naturally found in areas of Assam such as Kaziranga National Park, India and also in Chitwan National Park (CNP) of Nepal.
• The species is restricted to small habitats in Indo-Nepal terai and northern West Bengal and Assam.
• It is the largest of rhino species identified by a single black horn and a grey-brown hide with skin folds. They have knobby skin that appears to be armour-plated.
• Protection Status: IUCN Red List: Vulnerable; CITES : Appendix I; Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I.
22. Asiatic Lion
• Asiatic lions are cousins of the African lion; believed to have split away 100,000 years ago. • They are slightly smaller than African lions. • The most striking morphological character -> longitudinal fold of skin running along its belly. • Its range is restricted to the Gir National Park and environs in the Indian state of Gujarat.
• It is listed in Schedule I of Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972
• Categorized as Endangered in IUCN Red List and in Appendix I of CITES.
• The census is conducted once every five years. The first Lion Census was conducted by the Nawab of Junagadh in 1936; since 1965, the Forest Department has been regularly
conducting the Lion Census every five years.
23. Species [UPSC 2019]
• Herbivorous turtles: Green sea turtles eat seagrasses and algae, though juveniles feed on crabs, sponges, and jellyfish. Once mature, it is is strictly herbivorous.
• Herbivorous Fishes: Surgeonfish, parrotfish, Japanese angelfish, yellow bloth-rabbit fish are some examples of herbivorous fishes.
• Herbivorous marine mammals: Manatees and dugongs are the only herbivores among marine mammals.
• Viviparous snakes: Viviparous animals are those in which fertilization and embryo development occur inside the individual. Boa
Q 6. Consider the following
statements:
1. Some species of turtles are herbivores
2. Some species of fish are
herbivores.
3. Some species of marine
mammals are herbivores
4. Some species of snakes are viviparous
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
constrictors and green anacondas are major examples of viviparous snakes.
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
24. Himalayan Nettle [UPSC 2019]
• It is a fibre yielding plant in the Himalayan mountain range.
• It grows in alpine and hilly area at the altitude of 3000m from sea level. It abundantly grows in the forest, on the riverbank, and in humid habitat.
• It has become a good source of income, for people living in the Himalayan mountain range. • This fibre is bio-degradable and recyclable. • Khar community in Darchula district in far western Nepal produces fabrics from Himalayan nettle.
Q 19. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of [Based on Current Affairs 2018-19]
(a) anti-malarial drug
(b) biodiesel
(c) pulp for the paper industry
(d) textile fibre
25. Important Invasive species in India
• Prosopis Julifora/Angreji Babool: Native to Mexico, South America and become an invasive weed in Africa, Asia and Australia + It is anaggressive colonizer distributed throughout the country + It is awater-greedy plant that depletes ground water + It is one of the world’s top 100 least wanted plants + It is also affecting wild ass population in Kutch, Gujarat + It is also used to erect fences. [UPSC 2018]
• Black Mimosa:It is a woody invasive shrub originates from tropical America + It is now widespread throughout tropics + It forms dense, thorny, impenetrable thickets in wet areas + It isdistributed throughout India + It is abundant especially in still or slow floating waters.
• Partheniumhysterophorus (Carrot Grass): Annual herb native to American Tropics + It is invasive species in India + It is also known as Congress grass or GajarGhans + It produces allelopathic chemicals that suppress crop and pasture lands that affects humans and livestock.
• Lantana Camara: Also known as red sage and tickberry + It is native to American tropics + It outcompetes more desirable species + It spread from native Central and South America to 50 different countries.
• Siam weed: Common invasive species of kerala, locally known as Communist pacha as it spread all over the state within a short span of time just like Communism + Siam weed is native to South America.
Q 4. Why is a plant called Prosopis Juliflora often mentioned in the news?
(a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics
(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grow
(c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides
(d) None of the above
• Senna Spectabilis: Plant species of legume family + It is an invasive species in India caused threat to wildlife habitat in the Nilgiri Biosphere reserve.
• Needle Bush: Native to tropical south America + It is distributed throughout India + It is found occasional in thorny scrub and dry degraded forests.
26. Gharial (Gravialis gangeticus), Indian Wild Ass (Equus hemionus khur) and Wild Buffalo (Bubalus bubalis) are all mentioned under Schedule I for the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 -> so they cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law. [UPSC 2017]
Q 7. According to the Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?
1. Gharial
2. Indian wild ass
3. Wild Buffalo
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
27. Kharai camel [UPSC 2016]
• It is a unique breed of camels found only in Kachchh region of Gujarat.
• They have the special ability to survive on both, dry land and in the sea.
• It can swim up to 3kms into the sea in search of mangroves, its primary food.
• They can be domesticated- People consume its milk, while male calves are sold for economic returns.
• Threats: Heavy industrialisation (salt and cement factories) -> restricted the access of the Kharai camels to their mangroves, on which they are dependent for their food.
Q 2. What is/are unique about ‘Kharai Camel’, a breed found in India?
1. It is capable of swimming up to three kilometres in
seawater
2. It survives by grazing on
mangroves
3. It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
28. Red Sanders [UPSC 2016]
• It is an endemic tree species restricted to Eastern Ghats.
• It usually grows in rocky, degraded and fallow lands with Red Soil and hot and dry climate.
Q 5. With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, sometimes seen in the news,
consider the following statements:
1. It is a tree species found in a part of South India
• It occurs in the forest formation classified as “Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests”. • It is generally found at altitudes of 150 – 900 m.
• The threats include illicit felling for smuggling. • It is high in demand across Asia, particularly in China and Japan, for use in cosmetics and medicinal products as well as for making furniture, woodcraft and musical instruments. • It is listed in Appendix 2 under CITES & Schedule 2 under Wildlife protection act, 1972. • Categorized as Endangered under IUCN red list
2. It is one of the most
important trees in the
tropical rainforest areas of
South India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
29. Great Indian Hornbill/Great Pied Hornbill [UPSC 2016]
• These are found in three separate areas in South Asia; in the Western Ghats, the Himalayan foothills in Uttaranchal to south Nepal and Bhutan, and north-east India.
• They occur in primary evergreen and moist deciduous forest, mainly in lowland forest, but they can be found up to 2,000 meters in some areas.
• It is one of the larger members of the hornbill family.
• It is long lived, living for nearly 50 years in captivity
• State Bird of Kerala and Arunachal Pradesh. • IUCN status: Vulnerable
Q 11. In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the `Great Indian Hornbill’ in its natural habitat?
(a) Sand deserts of northwest India
(b) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Salt marshes of western Gujarat (d) Western Ghats
30. State Butterfly of Maharashtra: Blue Mormon [UPSC 2016]
• Papilio polymnestor, commonly known as Blue Mormon, has been declared as the state butterfly of Maharashtra.
• Maharashtra has become the first state to have State butterfly.
• It has velvet, black wings with bright blue spots • It is the largest butterfly in India after the Troides minos commonly known as the Southern Birdwing.
• It is only found in Sri Lanka, the western ghats of Maharashtra, South India and coastal belts of the country
• The population of Blue Mormons is not threatened. Although the Blue Mormons can be seen throughout the year, they occur more commonly in the monsoon or after it.
Q 12. Recently, for the first time in our country, which of the following States has declared a particular butterfly as ‘State Butterfly’? [Based on Current Affairs 2015-16]
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Karnataka
(d) Maharashtra
• The most number of Blue Mormons are found in Sri Lanka because the country has availability of the most number of food plants
• The butterfly is most common in evergreen forests; they usually like to sit on the Ixora flower species.
31. Dugong [UPSC 2015]
• The dugong is the only strictly marine herbivorous mammal, as all species of manatee use fresh water to some degree.
• Distribution: Marine National Park, Gulf of Kutch; Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park and Palk Strait; Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Caribbean Sea, Gulf of Mexico, the Amazon Basin, and West Africa.
• Feeding on sea grass, dugongs are found in sea grass beds, sheltered waters, lagoons and bays. • IUCN Status: Vulnerable
• Dugongs are under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, the punishment for its poaching is imprisonment.
• Threats are Hunting (meat and oil), habitat degradation, and fishing-related fatalities, red tide, coastal development.
Q 9. With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a herbivorous marine
animal
2. It is found along the entire coast of India
3. It is given legal protection under Schedule 1 of the
Wildlife (Protection) Act,
1972
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
32. Gangetic Dolphin [UPSC 2015]
• Popularly known as ‘Susu’ of rivers.
• Only live in freshwater and are essentially blind. • They are reliable indicator of the health of the entire river ecosystem.
• It is also National Aquatic Animal of India. • It can be found in the Ganges-Brahmaputra Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems of Nepal, India, and Bangladesh.
• In India, it covers seven states namely, Assam, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal.
• It prefers deep waters, in and around the confluence.
• Major threats to dolphins in India include overfishing in the habitat, pollution, infrastructure etc.
• Gangetic dolphins are one among the 21 species identified under the centrally sponsored scheme, “Development of Wildlife Habitat”.
• India’s national aquatic animal (declared in 2009).
• IUCN: Endangered.
Q 10. Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?
(a)Saltwater crocodile
(b) Olive ridley turtle
(c) Gangetic dolphin
(d) Gharial
• Schedule I of WPA,1972 & Appendix 1 of CITES.
• The Gangetic Dolphin is endemic to the Indian sub-continent and has a fairly extensive distribution range. It is found in the Ganga - Brahmaputra - Meghna and Karnaphuli- Sangu river systems of India and Bangladesh, while a few individuals survive in the Karnali, and the Sapta Kosi Rivers in Nepal.
• Being a mammal, the Ganges River dolphin cannot breathe in water and must surface every 30-120 seconds.
• It is one of four freshwater dolphin species in the world. The other three are: 'Baiji' in Yangtze River in China (Functionally extinct since 2006), 'Boto' in Amazon River, 'Bhulan' in Indus River in Pakistan.
33. Painted Stork [UPSC 2014]
• IUCN status-> Near Threatened.
• Wetlands of the plains of tropical Asia south of Himalayas in the Indian sub-continent and extending to South East Asia.
• Karnataka, TN and Andhra Pradesh.
• It is a large wader in the stork family.
• They are not migratory and only make short distance movements in some parts of their range in response to changes in weather or food availability or for breeding.
34. Common hill Myna
• IUCN status-> Least concern
• Listed in the Schedule I of wildlife (Protection) act, 1972
• State bird of Meghalaya and chattisgarh
• It is known for its ability to mimic noises including human speech.
• Habitat: Hill myna like areas where rainfall and humidity are both high. They prefer jungles, evergreen, and wet deciduous forests. They occurs in moist or semi-evergreen forest in lowlands, hills and mountains
• Range: Himalayan foothills up to about 2500 ft., also occur through Nepal, Sikkim, Bhutan and China, Indochina, Thailand, Malaysia, and the Philippines. India - Western Ghats , east and north-east (Arunachal Pradesh and the lower Himalayas)
35. Black necked crane
• IUCN Red List: Near Threatened
• CITES: Appendix I
Q 7. If you walk through the
countryside, you are likely to see some birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize the insects disturbed by their movement through grasses. Which of the following is /are such bird/birds?
1. Painted Stork
2. Common Myna
3. Black-necked Crane
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
• Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I
• Male is slightly bigger than female.
• The upper long neck, head, primary and secondary flight feathers and tail are completely black and body plumage is pale gray/whitish.
• The bird is revered by the community of Monpas as an embodiment of the sixth Dalai Lama (Tsangyang Gyatso).
• In Arunachal Pradesh, it is seen in Sangti valley in West Kameng district, Zemithang in Tawang district and Chug valley in Tawang district.
• The high altitude wetlands of the Tibetan plateau , Sichuan (China), and eastern Ladakh (India) are the main breeding ground of the species.
36. Neem Tree [UPSC 2014]
• Neem is a natural herb that comes from the neem tree, other names for which include Azadirachta indica and Indian lilac.
• Neem is known for its pesticidal and insecticidal properties; it has been patented by India for its use as biofertilizer, biopesticide and antifertility compound as contraceptive.
• Neem seeds are used in manufacture of biofuels, hospital detergents and pharmaceutical industry.
Q 16. With reference to Neem tree, consider the following statements:
1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the
proliferation of some species
of insects and mites
2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and
hospital detergents
3. Neem oil has applications in the pharmaceutical industry
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
37. M-STrIPES (Monitoring System For Tigers Intensive Protection and Ecological Status) o This app was developed by the National Tiger Conservation Authority and the
Wildlife Institute of India in 2010.
o M-STrIPES allows patrol teams to keep a better tab on suspicious activity while also
mapping the patrolling, location, routes and timings of forest officials.
o The App was also used in the All India-Tiger Estimation.
Q 13. The term M-STrIPES’ is
sometimes seen in news in the context of
(a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna (b) Maintenance of Tiger Reservoirs
(c) Indegenous Satellite Navigation System
(d) Security of National Highways
CHAPTER 11: MISCELLANEOUS
PRELIMS PYQ CONTENT – UPSC CSE EXAM – Topic-wise Segregated
1. Polyethylene terephthalate [UPSC 2022] • It is a strong, stiff synthetic fibre and resin and a member of the polyester family of polymers. • It is a clear, strong, and lightweight plastic that is widely used for packaging foods and beverages, especially convenience-sized soft drinks, juices and water. ‘
• It is also popular for packaging salad dressings, peanut butter, cooking oils, mouthwash, shampoo, liquid hand soap, window cleaner, even tennis balls.
• Maharashtra government has announced the ban on sale of alcohol in PET bottles.
• Polyethylene terephthalate is the most widely recycled plastic. For instance, PET bottles and containers are commonly melted down and spun into fibres for fibrefill or carpets.
• Polyethylene is not inert and is known to release additives and other degradation products into the environment throughout its lifetime.
8. With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements:
1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to
reinforce their properties.
2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic
beverage.
3. Bottles made of it can be
recycled into other products.
4. Articles made of it can be
easily disposed of by
incineration without causing
greenhouse gas emissions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
2. Miyawaki method [UPSC 2022]
• Miyawaki method, developed by a Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki after whom it is named, involves planting saplings in small areas, causing them to “fight” for resources and grow nearly 10 times quicker.
• Method of Afforestation + Miyawaki forests are tiny forests grown on small plots of land in 2 to 3 years and are self-sustaining, like a forest.
• Bombay Municipal Corporation (BMC) has been using the Miyawaki method to create tiny urban forests in the Metropolitan areas of Mumbai. Miyawaki is an afforestation method based on the work of Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki in the 1980s.
12. The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the:
(a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas
(d). Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces
(b) Development of gardens genetically modified flora using
(d) Creation of mini forests in urban areas
3. Magnetite particles: These are highly magnetic mineral form of iron and key constituent of air pollution and have potentially large impacts on the brain due to its unique combination of redox
6. Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems are generated as environmental pollutants from which of the following?
activity, surface charge and strongly magnetic behaviour. [UPSC 2021]
• Sources: Brakes of motor vehicles, Engines of motor vehicles, Microwave stoves within homes, Power plants, telephone lines, forest fires, wood -burning stoves and many high -
temperature industrial processes.
4. ITMO Researchers Develop New Method of Magnetite Nanoparticle Synthesis
• Magnetite nanoparticles: These are extremely miniscule particles consisting of iron and oxygen + Their properties differ from that of bigger pieces of the same material.
• Applications: Used to manufacture prototypes of memristor devices. These devices imitate synapses – the connections between neurons of the human brain + Production of healing
accelerating bindings + Treatment of neurocognitive diseases such as Alzheimer’s by restoring brain function.
1. Brakes of motor vehicles
2. Engines of motor vehicles
3. Microwave stoves within homes 4. Power plants
5. Telephone lines
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
5. Copper Smelting [UPSC 2021]
• It is the process through which the copper ore is purified through intense heating and melting to derive high quality copper or copper products.
• Carbon Monoxide is used in copper smelters to reduce copper oxide. But it is unlikely that a smelter will release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide in to the environment.
• Smelting produces by-products such as slag which may leach heavy metals such as arsenic, lead and mercury into groundwater.
• The smelting process releases sulphur dioxide as most of copper ores are Sulphur based.
6. Copper: It is a good conductor of electricity and is ductile in nature. It is used by the automobile and defense industries, and in the electrical industry for making wires, electric motors, transformers, and generators. India does not have rich reserves of copper; also lag in production of copper. India has low grade copper ore (less than 1% metal content). The major supply comes from the USA, Canada, Zimbabwe and Japan. Major copper ore deposits are located in the Singhbhum district (Jharkhand), Balaghat district (Madhya Pradesh), and Jhunjhunu and Alwar districts (Rajasthan).
13. Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants?
1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into the environment 2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into the environment
3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
7. Furnace oil [UPSC 2021]
• It is one of the cheapest fuels available for industrial use. It is a by-product of petroleum refineries. While processing the Crude oil, it is one of the products along with other petroleum fuels like HSD, Petrol etc.
• Uses of Furnace oil: As fuel for Power Generation in Diesel Generator sets, As fuel for Boilers/ Furnaces/ Air preheater/ Any other Heaters, Fuel for Bunkering and Fuel/ Feedstock in Fertilizer Plants.
• Emission of Sulphur: The oxides of sulphur emissions are a direct result of the sulphur content of the fuel oil + During the combustion process this fuel-bound sulphur is rapidly oxidised to sulphur dioxide (SO2) + It also contributes to the formation of secondary particulate matter (PM).
• Benefits of Furnace oil: Cheapest petroleum fuel available - gives most heat per litre at lowest cost; Readily stored - occupies half the space of coal for equivalent heat content; Easily handled, regulated and controlled; Less maintenance than coal-fired equipment; Less labor required than with coal, no stoking, ash removal or conveyors required; Less capital expenditure than equivalent coal plant; Clean operation - no fly ash or dust problems, easy smoke control.
14. With reference to furnace oil, consider the following statements:
1. It is a product of oil refineries
2. Some industries use it to generate power
3. Its use causes sulphur emissions into the environment
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
8. Major Types of BioFuels
Q 18. According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as
raw materials for the production of biofuels?
1. Cassava
2. Damaged wheat grains
3. Groundnut seeds
4. Horse gram
5. Rotten potatoes
6. Sugar beet
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
• Bioethanol: Derived from corn and sugarcane using fermentation process + it improves the combustion performance and lowers the emissions of carbon monoxide and sulphur oxide when mixed with petrol.
• Biodiesel: Derived from vegetable oils like soybean oil, vegetable waste oils, and animal fats by a biochemical process called “Transesterification.”
• Biogas: Produced by anaerobic decomposition of organic matter like sewage from animals and humans.
9. Cassava/Tapioca: Production in India is estimated to be 4.98 million tonnes. Tamil Nadu, followed by Kerala accounts for major amount of production + It has high starch content and ability to grow under low management conditions + Agricultural residues of cassava like peels, stems and leaves are the potential feedstock for 2G bioethanol production.
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
10. Social cost of carbon (SCC): It is an estimate, in dollars, of the economic damages that would result from emitting one additional ton of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere + It puts the effects of climate change into economic terms to help policymakers understand the economic impacts of decisions that would increase or decrease emissions + India’s country-level social cost of carbon emission was estimated to be the highest at $86 per tonne of CO2 + India is followed by the US ($48) and Saudi Arabia ($47). [UPSC 2020]
Q 19. Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’? It is a
measure, in monetary value, of the
(a) long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2, emissions in a given year
(b) requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels
(c) efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place
(d) contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth
11. Major Minerals: Major minerals are those specified in the schedule appended in the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act,1957. [UPSC 2020]
• Fuel Minerals: Coal, Lignite, Natural Gas, Petroleum (Crude).
• Metallic Minerals: Bauxite, Chromite, Copper Ore, Gold, Iron Ore, Lead (Concentrates), Zinc (Concentrates), Manganese Ore, Silver, Tin (Concentrates), Tungsten (Concentrates).
• Non-Metallic Minerals: Agate, Andalusite, Apatite, Asbestos, Ball Clay, Barytes, Calcite, Chalk, Clay, Corundum, Calcarious sand,
Q 21. Consider the following minerals:
1. Bentonite
2. Chromite
3. Kyanite
4. Sillimanite
In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major
minerals?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
Diamond, Diaspore, Dolomite, Kyanite, Laterite, Limestone, Limestone Kankar, Pyrophyllite, Phosphorite, Quartz, Quartzite, Fuchsite Quartzite, Silica Sand, Salt (Rock), Salt (Evaporated), Shale, Slate, Steatite, Sillimanite etc.
12. Minor Minerals: Minor Minerals are those specified in schedule appended in Minor Mineral concession rules and the common minor minerals are Limestone, Decorative stones etc.
• Bentonite, Boulder, Brick Earth, Building Stones, Chalcedony or Corundum, Fuller’s Earth, Gravel, Lime Stone, Dunite, Felspar, Fire Clay, Felsite, Flourite (Graded), Flourite (Concentrates), Ordinary Sand, Ordinary Earth, Pebbles or Kankar, Quartzite and Sand stone, Road Metal, Salt Petre etc.
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
13. Groundwater situation in India: India is the largest extractor of groundwater in the world - more than the USA and China put together + According to the Central Groundwater Board report (2017), nearly 40 per cent of the 700 districts in India have reported ‘critical’ or ‘overexploited’ groundwater levels + Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh are states where the magnitude of water problem is not just large, but also complex + Recent data shows that more than 90% of groundwater in India is used for irrigation in agriculture-> 230 billion metre cubes of groundwater pumped out each year for irrigating farm areas in India + As per the report ‘National Compilation on Dynamic Groundwater Resources of India, 2017’ of CGWA, 1186 units in various States (17%) have been categorized as ‘Over-Exploited’, 313 units (5%) are ‘Critical’, and 972 are semi-critical units (14%) + As per report of FAO, the countries with the largest extent of areas equipped for irrigation with groundwater, in absolute terms, are India (39 million ha), China (19 million ha) and the USA (17 million ha). [UPSC 2020]
Q 24. Consider the following
statements :
1. 36% of India’s districts are
classified as “overexploited” or
“critical” by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
2. CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act.
3. India has the largest area
under groundwater irrigation in
the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
14. Methane Hydrate [UPSC 2019]
• Methane hydrate is a crystalline solid that consists of a methane molecule surrounded by a cage of interlocking water molecules. Owing to melting of ice, global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
• Distribution: Methane hydrate is an "ice" that only occurs naturally in subsurface deposits
Q 9. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’?
1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas
from these deposits
where temperature and pressure conditions are favorable for its formation. Known as flammable ice, methane hydrates are found in permafrost regions of the arctic and on the seafloor at continental margins below 500 meters of depth.
• Oxidizes to CO2: A molecule of methane is oxidized to water and carbon dioxide within a decade or so, mainly by reaction with another trace gas, the hydroxyl radical OH-.
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic
Tundra and under the seafloor
3. Methane in the atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
15. Pesticides Ban in Agriculture
• The Pesticide Action Network (PAN) India has welcomed the draft order issued by the Centre banning 27 pesticides, which are already banned in several other countries, in the country.
• The list of pesticides, according to the draft order, proposed to be banned include 2,4-D, acephate, atrazine, benfuracarb, butachlor, captan, carbendazin, carbofuran, chlorpyriphos, deltamethrin, dicofol, dimethoate, dinocap, diuron, malathion, mancozeb, methimyl, monocrotophos, oxyfluorfen, pendimethalin, quninalphos, sulfosulfuron, thiodicarb, thiophante methyl, phorate thiram, zineb and ziram [UPSC 2019]
Q 11. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and
triazophos is viewed with
apprehension. These chemicals are used as
(a) pesticides in agriculture
(b) preservatives in processed foods (c) fruit-ripening agents
(d) moisturising agents in cosmetics
16. Agricultural Soils [UPSC 2019]
• Soil water holding capacity is the amount of water that a given soil can hold for crop use. • Plant residues that cover the soil surface protect
the soil from sealing and crusting by raindrop impact, which enhances rainwater infiltration and reduce runoff.
• Each 1% increase in soil organic matter helps soil hold 20,000 gallons more water per acre. • Sulphur is one of three nutrients that are cycled between the soil, plant matter and the atmosphere.
• Salinization occurs with excessive irrigation, because deposits of salts build up in the soil and can reach levels that are harmful to crops.
Q 13. Consider the following
statements:
1. Agricultural soils release
nitrogen oxides into the
environment
2. Cattle release ammonia into the environment
3. The poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds
into the environment
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
17. Hydrogen- enriched CNG (H-CNG) [UPSC 2019]
• Ministry of Road Transport and Highways has allowed use of H-CNG (18% mix of hydrogen) in CNG engines.
• The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) developed specifications (IS 17314:2019) of H-CNG for automotive purposes, as a fuel.
• It is a blend of hydrogen and CNG, the ideal hydrogen concentration being 18%.
• It can reduce the emission of carbon monoxide (CO) up to 70%, besides enabling up to 5% savings in fuel when compared to conventional fuels.
• Concern: Hydrogen is “highly volatile” and there is a possibility of rise in combustion temperature and risk.
• Delhi Government has tied up with IOCL to induct 50 HCNG buses on a trial basis. IOCL has plans to mix (18-20) % Hydrogen in these buses.
• Current cost of H2 is more than the cost of Natural Gas, which makes HCNG more expensive than CNG.
Q 20. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H CNG) as fuel [Based on Current Affairs 2018-19]
buses in public transport, consider the following statements:
1. The main advantage of the use of HCNG is the elimination of
carbon monoxide emissions
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon
emissions
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with
CNG as fuel for buses
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
18. Spread of Plant Diseases [UPSC 2018] • Nematodes, snails, birds, and wild and domestic animals often help dissemination of plant diseases.
• The spores of many parasitic fungi are disseminated by air currents from diseased to disease-free host Pathogens like, bacteria are often disseminated by splashing of raindrops, as in case of Citrus canker disease.
• Soil and field operation also disseminate the diseases as they result in dust blowing.
Q 8. Consider the following
1. Birds
2. Dust blowing
3. Rain
4. Wind blowing
Which of the above spread plant diseases?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
19. Consequences of fall in population of species of butterflies [UPSC 2017]
• Bees and butterflies play a vital role in the pollination of plants and the production of crops by transporting pollen grains from one place to another.
• They also act as a lower member of the food chain.
• A number of animals, including birds and mice feed on butterfly.
• As populations of butterfly diminish, so will populations of birds and other animals that rely on them as a food source.
• This loss of the butterfly is the beginning of the butterfly effect.
• These are some of the common predators of butterflies such as wasps, ants, parasitic flies, birds, snakes, toads, rats etc. The decline in butterfly population would adversely affect the food.
Q 3. Due to some reasons if there is a huge fall in the population of a species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences?
1. Pollination of some plants
could be adversely affected
2. There could be a drastic
increase in the fungal infection of some cultivated plants
3. It could lead to a fall in the
population of some species of
wasps, spiders and birds
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
20. Algae based biofuels [UPSC 2017]
• Algae fuel, algal biofuel is an alternative to liquid fossil fuels that uses algae as its source of energy rich oils.
• Algaculture can be initiated on land unsuitable for agriculture or saline water or wastewater.
• They can grow on marginal or non-crop land and also on brackish or polluted water.
• Developing and engineering ABB technology requires a high level of expertise until construction is finished, which may be a significant barrier in developing countries that have a weak investment climate.
Q 4. Is it possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry? 1. Production of algae based
biofuels is possible in seas
only and not on continents
2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel production requires high level of expertise/ technology until the
construction is completed
3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of a large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social
concerns
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
21. Hibernation [UPSC 2014]
• Hibernation is a state of inactivity and metabolic depression in endotherms.
• It refers to a season of heterothermy that is characterized by low body temperature, slow breathing and heart rate, and low metabolic rate. • It can be seen in bats, bears and rodents.
• True hibernators like ground squirrels awaken slowly. However, bears can awaken very easily during their denning period.
Q 5. Consider the following :
1. Bats
2. Bears
3. Rodents
The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in which of the above kinds of animals?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Hibernation cannot be observed in any of the above
22. Coalbed Methane [UPSC 2014]
• CBM is an unconventional natural gas that occurs in coal beds in adsorbed form during coalification process and is rich in methane content.
• With fifth-largest coal reserves in the world India has huge potential (Gondwana sediments of eastern India holding the bulk potential); CBM resources are estimated at 92 trillion cubic feet (TCF).
• Uses: It can be used for power generation, as CNG auto fuel, running internal combustion engines, as feedstock for fertilizers and as industrial uses such as in cement production, rolling mills, steel plants, and for methanol production.
23. Shale gas [UPSC 2014]
• It is natural gas formed from being trapped within shale formations.
• Unlike conventional hydrocarbons that can be extracted from the permeable rocks easily, shale gas is trapped under low permeable rocks.
• It is colourless, odourless gas, lighter than air. • It is cheaper than natural gas and releases 50% less CO2.
• Used as feedstock for petrochemicals industry, which is turned into fertilizer, plastics and other useful materials.
• Cambay, Gondwana, Krishna-Godavari and Cauvery Basins are potential sites.
• Extraction requires creation of fractures in oil and gas rich shale to release hydrocarbons through a process called hydraulic fracking/fracturing.
Q 11. With reference to two
nonconventional energy sources called ‘coalbed methane’ and ‘shale gas’, consider the following statements:
1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from
coal seams, while shale gas is
a mixture of propane and
butane only that can be
extracted from fine-grained
sedimentary rocks.
2. In India abundant coalbed
methane sources exist, but so
far no shale gas sources have
been found.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CHAPTER 1: INTRODUCTION OF ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY
1. Ecosystem: Structural and functional unit of biosphere; consists of community of living beings and physical environment, both interacting and exchanging materials between them. [UPSC 2015]
• Components of Ecosystem
o Abiotic components: Inorganic and non-living parts; consists of components
such as energy, rainfall, temperature,
atmosphere, substratum, materials,
latitude and altitude.
o Biotic components:
▪ Primary producers- Autotrophs
(self-nourishing): Green plants and
certain bacteria; synthesize
carbohydrate by the process of
photosynthesis for themselves;
supply indirectly to other non
producers. Examples include
herbaceous and woody plants (in
terrestrial ecosystem); microscopic
algae (in aquatic ecosystem).
▪ Consumers- Heterotrophs:
incapable of producing their own
food; depend on organic food
derived from plants, animals.
− Macro consumers: Feed on
plants or animals; herbivores
feed on plants; secondary
consumers feed on primary
consumers like wolves;
carnivores feed on secondary
consumers called tertiary
consumers; omnivores consume
both plants and animals.
− Micro consumers
Saprotrophs: Bacteria and fungi
which obtain energy and
nutrients by decomposing
detritus of plants and animal
origin; earthworms are detritus
feeders-> help in decomposition
of organic matter.
Q 1. Which one of the following is the best description of the term
“ecosystem”?
(a) A community of organisms
interacting with one another
(b) That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living organisms
(c) A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live
(d) The flora and fauna of a geographical area
2. Accounting of Ecosystems
• The Economics of Ecosystem and Biodiversity (TEEB) [UPSC 2016]
o It was a study led by Pavan Sukhdev from 2007-11.
o It is a global initiative focused on “making nature’s values visible”.
o Its principal objective is to mainstream the values of biodiversity and ecosystem
services into decision-making at all
levels.
o It is based in Geneva, Switzerland at the International Environment House, the
TEEB office is hosted by UNEP under
the Economics and Trade Branch (ETB)
of the Division of Technology, Industry
and Economics (DTIE).
• The Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES)
o It is an independent intergovernmental body, established by member States in
2012.
o Its objective is to strengthen the science policy interface for biodiversity and
ecosystem services for the conservation
and sustainable use of biodiversity, long
term human well-being and sustainable
development.
o UNEP provides secretariat services to IPBES.
o Four complementary areas-> Assessments, policy support, Building
capacity and knowledge and
Communications & Outreach.
• Wealth Accounting and valuation of Ecosystem services (WAVES)
o It is a World Bank-led global partnership that aims to promote sustainable
Q 4. With reference to an initiative called ‘The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF and World Economic Forum
2. It is a global initiative that
focuses on drawing attention to
the economic benefits of
biodiversity
3. It presents an approach that can help decision-makers recognize, demonstrate and capture the
value of ecosystems and
biodiversity
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
development by ensuring that natural
resources are mainstreamed in
development planning and national
economic accounts.
o It is part of the broader World Bank umbrella initiative, the Global Program
for Sustainability (GPS).
o It was launched at 2010 Convention on Biological meeting in Nagoya, Japan.
• The Economics of Land Degradation (ELD) initiative
o It is a global initiative established in 2011 by UNCCD, the German Federal
Ministry for Economic Cooperation and
Development, and the European
Commission.
o It is coordinated and supported by the ELD Secretariat.
o It highlights the reward of investing in land management and provides a
universal approach for analysis of the
economics of land degradation.
3. Nitrogen fixation [UPSC 2022]
• Nitrogen fixation is a process that implies the transformation of the relatively non reactive atmospheric N2 into its more reactive compounds (nitrates, nitrites, or ammonia).
• An N-fixing crop is a natural way to provide plant-adjusted N without any industrial harm to nature.
• Nitrogen fixing plants are: Clovers, vetches, and peas are nitrogen-fixing plants used by farmers worldwide and in the US Southern Great Plains in particular.
• Peas or beans can be used as a summer nitrogen-fixing cover crop or harvested for food. Both ways, they enrich the soil with plant-suitable N.
• Beans: fava (aka faba, broad), alfalfa, green (aka French), runner, field, sweet, peanuts (aka groundnuts), soybeans, cream, black eyed, or purple-hulled beans, lupins, lentils, cowpeas.
10. Which of the following are nitrogen fixing plants?
1. Alfalfa
2. Amaranth
3. Chickpea
4. Clover
5. Purslane (Kulfa)
6. Spinach
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6
4. Greenwashing [UPSC 2022]
• It is the process of conveying a false impression or providing misleading information about how a company’s products are more environmentally sound.
16. Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”?
(a) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
• Greenwashing is considered an unsubstantiated claim to deceive consumers into believing that a company’s products are environmentally friendly.
(b) Non-inclusion of ecological/
environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country
(c) Ignoring the consequences
disastrous ecological while infrastructure development undertaking
(d) Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme
5. Cultivators of Fungi [UPSC 2022]
• Fungi and insects are two hyperdiverse groups of organisms that have interacted for millennia.
• Over time, some insects have come to rely on fungi for a variety of resources, including room and board.
• Ants, wasps, beetles and a variety of other insects have adapted to using fungi primarily for reinforcing structures or as sources of food, with the most extreme examples resulting in cultivation of fungal crops.
• Chief among these examples are the mushroom-farming ants and termites, and the wood-boring beetles and wasps.
18. Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of
fungi?
(a) Ant
(b) Cockroach
(c) Crab
(d) Spider
6. Symbiotic relationship [2021]: It is a close ecological relationship between the individuals of two or more different species-
• Cnidaria is an invertebrate phylum which has a symbiotic relation with the unicellular dinoflagellate algae, called zooxanthellae.
• Fungi live inside the roots of plants -> plants provide nutrients to the fungus and, in return, the fungus provides water and certain nutrients. Fungi also lives in a symbiotic relation with algae as a lichen.
• Protozoa has a close mutualistic association with unicellular symbiont (like bacteria, cyanobacteria or/and unicellular algae) or multicellular organism (ruminants, lower termites, wood-eating cockroaches, plants).
• Coral and Zooxanthellae: Corals live in a symbiotic relationship with algae called zooxanthellae + Coral provide CO2, ammonium and protection to zooxanthellae + Zooxanthellae provide coral with nutrients through photosynthesis; Corals need these organic products of photosynthesis to grow, thrive, and build up the reef.
11. Which of the following have species that can establish a symbiotic
relationship with other organisms?
1. Cnidarians
2. Fungi
3. Protozoa
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
• Symbiosis: Three types of behaviours observed- Mutualism, Commensalism, Parasitism.
7. Ferns: Nonflowering vascular plants that possess true roots, stems, and complex leaves and that reproduce by spores. Ferns require indirect sunlight, moist soil, and a humid atmosphere. It prefers potting soil with good drainage and high organic content. [UPSC 2021]
8. Lichens: They are symbiotic associations of fungi and algae in which fungi (mycobiont) facilitate water, minerals etc to the algae and algae (phycobiont) prepare carbohydrate by the process of photosynthesis and supply the food to the fungi. They can grow on any undisturbed surface such as bark, wood, mosses, rock, peat, glass, metal, plastic etc. [UPSC 2014]
9. Mosses: Non-flowering plants which produce spores and have stems and leaves, but do not have true roots. It needs virtually nothing except shade and moisture to thrive.
16. In nature, which of the following is/are most likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil?
1. Fern
2. Lichen
3. Moss
4. Mushroom
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
10. Photosynthesis [UPSC 2014]
• It is the process by which green plants and certain other organisms transform light energy into chemical energy.
• During photosynthesis in green plants, light energy is captured and used to convert water, carbon dioxide, and minerals into oxygen and energy-rich organic compounds.
• Factors: Internal: Number, size, age and orientation of leaves, mesophyll cells and chloroplasts, internal CO2 concentration and the amount of chlorophyll + External: Availability of sunlight, temperature, CO2 concentration and water.
Q 17. Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?
(a) Potential energy is released to form free energy
(b) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored
(c) Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water.
(d) Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out
CHAPTER 2: FUNCTIONS OF AN ECOSYSTEM
PRELIMS PYQ CONTENT – UPSC CSE EXAM – Topic-wise Segregated
1. Phosphorous cycle: Occurs in large amounts in phosphate rocks and enters cycle from erosion and mining activities + Main storage is earth’s crust and it is available by weathering and erosion + Phosphates also enters rivers and ocean + After million years crustal plates rise and expose phosphates on land and the geochemical phase begin again + The weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrient to enter the phosphorous cycle + Much of the phosphorus on Earth is tied up in rock and sedimentary deposits, from which it is released by weathering, leaching, and mining. Phosphorus moves in a cycle through rocks, water, soil and sediments and organisms. [UPSC 2021]
2. Sulphur cycle: Reservoir is in soil and sediments (locked in coal, oil etc) and inorganic deposits (pyrite rock and sulphur rock) in the form of sulphates, sulphides and organic Sulphur + It is released through weathering of rocks, erosional runoff and decomposition of organic matter and is carried to terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems in salt solution.
• Sulphur enters the atmosphere from several sources like volcanic eruptions, combustion of fossil fuels, from the surface of the ocean and gases released by decomposition.
• Atmospheric sulphur dioxide carried back to earth after being dissolved in rainwater as weak sulphuric acid (acid rain).
• Sulphur in the form of sulphates is taken up by plants and incorporated through a series of metabolic processes into sulphur bearing amino acid which is incorporated in the proteins of autotroph tissues. It then passes through the grazing food chain.
• Sulphur bound in a living organism is carried back to the soil, to the bottom of ponds and lakes and seas through excretion and decomposition of dead organic material.
8. In the case of which of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrients to enter the cycle?
(a) Carbon cycle
(b) Nitrogen cycle
(c) Phosphorus cycle
(d) Sulphur cycle
3. Nitrogen cycle: Elemental form of Nitrogen cannot be used directly by most living organisms. It needs to be fixed to ammonia, nitrites or nitrates before it is taken by plants. It occurs in three ways:
• By microorganisms (bacteria and blue green algae)
• By man using industrial processes (fertilizer factories): It exceeded
o amount fixed by natural cycle and has became a pollutant which can
o disrupt balance of nitrogen lead to acid rain, eutrophication etc.
• Atmoshperic phenomenon such as thunder and lightning
4. Carbon cycle: Carbon is present in the atmosphere in form of CO2 + Cycle involves continuous exchange of carbon between the atmosphere and organisms + Carbon from atmosphere -> green plants by photosynthesis + Carbon from animals -> Through respiration and decomposition of dead organic matter, it returns to the atmosphere + It is usually a short term cycle; also accumulates as un-decomposed organic matter in the peaty layers of marshy soil in bottom sediments of aquatic systems which take a long time to be released + Ocean is the second largest carbon sink + CO2 is a greenhouse gas and traps heat in the atmosphere. Without it and other GHGs, Earth would be a frozen world.
5. Oxygen cycle-> most vital element on Earth roughly 21% of the atmosphere.
• Processes that produce oxygen: Photosynthesis in plants; Sunlight + water vapour = some oxygen is produced + Processes that consume oxygen: Breathing, decomposition, combustion and rusting.
• Cycling of oxygen: Highly complex process; Oxygen + nitrogen = nitrates; Photosynthesis- oxygen is released as a byproduct + Animals and humans consume oxygen during respiration and release CO2 into the atmosphere + This carbon dioxide is then again utilised by plants for photosynthesis and thus the cycle moves on.
6. Detritivores: These are heterotrophs that obtain nutrients by consuming detritus. There are many kinds of invertebrates, vertebrates and plants that carry out coprophagy. By doing so, all these detritivores contribute to decomposition and the nutrient cycles + Examples include Earthworms, blowflies, millipedes, maggots, and woodlice. [UPSC 2021]
7. Seahorse: It is considered a secondary consumer; occupy a middle position in their food chain + They primarily feed on plankton, small fish and small crustaceans, such as shrimp and copepods + It gains energy by eating other living organisms.
8. Jelly Fish: These are excellent predators + They have long tentacles with multiple cells on it called cnidoblasts, which shelter nematocysts that contain stinging threads + They sting with tentacles to subdue small aquatic fish and eat eggs that stick to their tentacles.
9. Detritus food chain: Starts from dead organic matter of decaying animals and plant bodies consumed by microorganisms and then to detritus feeding organism called detrivores + It is maximum in terrestrial/land.
10. Functions of Detritivores: They contribute to the breakdown of all of the dead and decaying material in any ecosystem-> important role in the cycling of nutrients and are an essential part of most biogeochemical cycles, such as the carbon cycle, nitrogen cycle and the phosphorus cycle.
9. Which of the following are
detritivores?
1. Earthworms
2. Jellyfish
3. Seahorse
4. Woodlice
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
CHAPTER 3: AQUATIC ECOSYSTEM
PRELIMS PYQ CONTENT – UPSC CSE EXAM – Topic-wise Segregated
1. Biorock technology
• Biorock technology is used to protect coral reefs by building rock-like materials beneath the ocean. [UPSC 2022]
• It is the process in which a very low voltage electric current is applied through the seawater. This causes the deposition of crystalline salts of minerals dissolved in water.
11. “Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations?
(a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs (b) Development of building materials using plant residues
(c) Identification of areas for
exploration/extraction of shale gas (d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas
2. Copepods [UPSC 2021]: These are small aquatic crustaceans and are one of the most numerous metazoan groups in aquatic communities. These are major secondary producers in the World Ocean which represent an important link between phytoplankton, micro zooplankton and higher trophic levels such as fish.
3. Cyanobacteria [UPSC 2021]: Also called blue-green algae, these are microscopic organisms found naturally in soils and all types of water. Important primary producers in the food chain of oceans and form a part of the phytoplankton.
4. Diatoms [UPSC 2021]: These are photosynthesising algae; found in almost every aquatic environment including fresh and marine waters; major primary producers in the ocean, responsible annually for ~20% of photosynthetically fixed CO2 on Earth.
• Diatom test: Maharashtra Anti-Terrorism Squad (ATS) relied on a diatom tests for leads in the alleged murder case of Mansukh Hiran + It helps in diagnosing the death caused by drowning. It tests diatoms in the body being tested + If person is alive when he enters the water-> diatoms will enter the lungs when person inhales water while drowning. These diatoms are then carried to different body parts by blood circulation + If a person is dead when is thrown in the water-> no circulation and no transport of diatom cells to various organs + It is reliable unless and until the deceased person has been drinking water from the same source of water before his death.
5. Foraminifera: Foraminifera are amoeba-like, single celled protists (very simple micro-organisms). They have been called ‘armoured amoebae’ because they secrete a tiny shell usually between about a half and one millimetre long.
3. Consider the following kinds of organisms:
1. Copepods
2. Cyanobacteria
3. Diatoms
4. Foraminifera
Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
CHAPTER 4: ENVIRONMENTAL POLLUTION AND DEGRADATION PRELIMS PYQ CONTENT – UPSC CSE EXAM – Topic-wise Segregated
1. Sources of Methane and Nitrous oxide • Methane and nitrous oxide are important greenhouse gases. They contribute to global warming. Important anthropogenic sources of biogenic methane are wet rice fields, cattle, animal waste, landfills and biomass burning. [UPSC 2022]
• Flooded rice cultivation has been identified as one of the leading global agricultural sources of anthropogenic methane (CH4) emissions.
• Paddies are a potential source of anthropogenic nitrous oxide (N2O) emission as well. In paddies, both the soil and the rice plants emit N2O into the atmosphere.
1. Among the following crops, which one is the most important
anthropogenic source of both
methane and nitrous oxide?
(a) Cotton
(b) Rice
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Wheat
2. WHO Air Quality Guidelines [UPSC 2022] • WHO has released the Global Air Quality Guidelines(AQGs).
• The new guidelines recommend air quality levels for six pollutants -> PM 2.5 and PM 10, ozone (O3), nitrogen dioxide (NO2), sulfur dioxide (SO2) and carbon monoxide (CO).
• The annual average concentrations of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m3, while 24-hour average exposures should not exceed 15 µg/m3
• The highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of sunny weather.
• PM10 are capable of penetrating deep into the lungs but PM2.5 can even enter the bloodstream
• Long-term exposure to ozone is linked to aggravation of asthma, and is likely to be one of many causes of asthma development.
6. In the Guidelines, statements: context of WHO consider the Air Quality following
1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³
and annual mean of PM 2.5
should not exceed 5 µg/m³.
2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during
the periods of inclement
weather.
3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the
bloodstream.
4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2 only
3. Acid Rain
• Normal rain has a pH of about 5.6. When pH falls below this; it is called acid rain (pH 4.2 to 4.4).
• Caused by atmospheric pollution from acidic gases such as sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen emitted from the burning of fossil fuels. [UPSC 2022]
19. Consider the following:
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Nitrogen oxide
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
4. Blue carbon: It is stored in the coastal ecosystem such as Mangroves, seagrass meadows and intertidal salt marshes. Coastal ecosystems such as mangroves, tidal marshes and seagrass meadows sequester and store more carbon per unit area than terrestrial forests and are now being recognized for their role in mitigating climate change + These ecosystems also provide essential benefits for climate change adaptation, including coastal protection and food security for many coastal
15. What is blue carbon?
(a) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems
(b) Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and agricultural soils
(c) Carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas
(d) Carbon present in the atmosphere
communities + Dedicated conservation efforts can ensure that coastal ecosystems continue to play their role as long-term carbon sinks. [UPSC 2021]
5. Black carbon: It is a kind of an aerosol and sooty black material emitted from gas and diesel engines, coal-fired power plants due to incomplete combustion + Comprises high levels of particulate matter + Short lived climate pollutant (few days to weeks) + They are 2nd most anthropogenic agent for climate change.
• Main Sources: Incomplete burning of coal, biomass burning, cooking with solid fuels, diesel exhausts etc.
• Impact: When deposited on ice, reduces the reflective capacity, good absorber of sunlight- > absorb million time more energy than CO2; affect cloud formation and rainfall + It may also lead to depletion of ozone layer + Key component of PM 2.5 -> negative health impacts.
• Facts: India contributes around 25% of the world’s black carbon emissions; second largest contributor to black carbon in the world.
6. Brown carbon: It is emitted majorly by biomass combustion + It is ubiquitous
and unidentified component of organic aerosol + It is light absorbing organic matter.
• Major sources: Biomass burning (including domestic wood burning), agricultural
fires including stubble burning etc.
7. Brown Vs Black carbon: Black carbon is produced by high temperature combustion and brown carbon is emitted by biomass combustion.
8. Benzene [UPSC 2020]: Benzene is a natural constituent of crude oil and is one of the elementary petrochemicals + It increase the risk of cancer, bone marrow failure and other illnesses
• Natural sources include volcanoes and forest fires.
• Industrial processes such as processing of petroleum products, production of xylene and other aromatic compounds, use in industrial and consumer products as chemical intermediate and component of petrol (gasoline) and heating oil.
• Automobile exhaust accounts for the largest source of benzene in environment.
Q 6. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution?
1. Automobile exhaust
2. Tobacco smoke
3. Wood burning
4. Using varnished wooden
furniture
5. Using products made of
polyurethane
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
• Wood smoke was the biggest contributor of many organic compounds, including benzene, ethene and ethyne.
• It could be released from varnished wooden furniture or new carpets and using products made of polyurethane.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
9. Microbeads [UPSC 2019]
• Microbeads are manufactured solid plastic particles of less than five millimeters mostly made from polyethylene and other petrochemical plastics such as polypropylene and polystyrene.
• They are used in exfoliating personal care products, toothpastes and in biomedical and health-science research.
• They can cause plastic particle water pollution and pose an environmental hazard for aquatic animals in freshwater and ocean water.
• Greenpeace refers to it as a “toxic time bomb”.
• In the marine environment microplastics can both release and absorb toxins, which can then move throughout the foodchain.
Q 7. Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into the environment?
(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems
(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
(c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.
10. Bioremediation
• It is the technology that uses microorganism metabolism to remove pollutants; cleans up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
• Environment is altered to stimulate growth of micro-organisms and degrade pollutants.
• It is used to remediate soils/sludge and groundwater contaminated by petroleum hydrocarbons, solvents, pesticides, and other organic chemicals.
• It is a slow process, so the heavy metals such as cadmium and lead are not readily absorbed by bioremediation using microorganisms.
• In-situ bioremediation
o Bioventing: supply of air and nutrients through wells to
contaminated soil to stimulate the
growth of indigenous bacteria.
Q 2. In the context of solving pollution problems, which is/are the
advantage/advantages of bioremediation techniques?
1. It is a technique of cleaning up
pollution by enhancing the same
biodegradation process that occurs in nature
2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be
readily and completely treated by
bioremediation using
microorganisms
3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
o Biosparging: Injection of air under pressure below the water table to
increase groundwater oxygen
concentrations and enhance the rate
of biological degradation of
contaminants by naturally occurring
bacteria.
o Bio augmentation: Microorganisms are imported to a contaminated site to
enhance degradation process.
o Bioleaching: Extraction of metals from their ores through the use of
living organisms.
• Ex-situ bioremediation
o Bioreactors: These are large vessels where the contaminated material can
be monitored and conditions for
bioremediation can be controlled.
o Land farming: It involves spreading contaminated soil into a lined bed (to
prevent leaching) and periodically
applying nutrients and mixing the soil
to boost biological activity.
o Bio piling: It places the contaminated soil into piles that are well aerated and
nutrients are added to speed up
bioremediation.
• Advantages of Bioremediation [UPSC 2017]
o By relying solely on natural processes, it minimizes damage to
ecosystems.
o Creates relatively few harmful byproducts -> contaminants
converted into water and harmless
gases like carbon dioxide.
o It is cheaper than most cleanup methods because it does not require
substantial equipment or labor.
(d) 1, 2, and 3
11. Carbon Sequestration: It describes long term storage of CO2 and other forms of carbon to mitigate global warming. Also known as Carbon capture and storage (CCS). • Mechanism: CCS catches and sequesters
(hide) CO2 from power stations, industrial sites and permanently stores it in underground.
• Potential sites: Natural sinks such as Ocean, forests, soil etc. and Artificial
Q 5. In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to
anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration?
1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline formalities
sinks like depleted oil reserves, un mineable mines etc. [UPSC 2017]
• Types of Sequestration
o Geologic sequestration: Natural pore spaces in geologic formations
serve as reservoirs for long term CO2
storage.
▪ Trapping mechanisms:
Hydrodynamic trapping (CO2
trapped under low permeability
hard rock), Solubility trapping
(dissolved into a liquid) and
Mineral carbonation.
o Ocean sequestration: Carbon is stored in oceans through direct
injection or fertilization.
▪ Enhancing productivity of ocean
biological systems through Iron
fertilization (stimulates
phytoplankton production), and
injecting CO2 into deep ocean.
o Terrestrial sequestration: Increasing carbon fixation through
photosynthesis, changing land use
pattern enhance carbon uptake in
soils, vegetation etc.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
12. Biological oxygen demand: Water pollution by organic wastes measured in BOD + It is amount of dissolved oxygen needed by bacteria in decomposing the organic wastes present in water + It is expressed in milligrams of oxygen per litre of water + Higher value of BOD -> low DO content of water. [UPSC 2017]
13. Chemical oxygen demand: Measure of oxygen equivalent of requirement of oxidation of total organic matter (both biodegradable and non biodegradable) present in water.
Q 10. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criteria for
(a) Measuring oxygen level in blood
(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystem
(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions
14. National Air Quality Index: It is a number used by government agencies to communicate the public how polluted the air quality is or how polluted it is forecasted to become.
• Launched in Sep 2014 as part of Swachh Bharat Abhiyan by MoEFCC.
• Nodal Agency: CPCB is the nodal agency; developed color coded air-quality index to mark hazardous levels for the public benefit.
• Six AQI categories: Good, Satisfactory, moderately polluted, poor, very poor and severe.
• 8 pollutants: PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, 03, NH3 and Pb. [UPSC 2016]
Q 9. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index?
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Carbon monoxide
3. Nitrogen dioxide
4. Sulfur dioxide
5. Methane
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
CHAPTER 5: IMPORTANT WETLANDS
PRELIMS PYQ CONTENT – UPSC CSE EXAM – Topic-wise Segregated
1. Ramsar Convention
• The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands of International Importance is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands. It is also known as the Convention on Wetlands.
• It is named after the city of Ramsar in Iran, where the convention was signed in 1971.
• Wetland Definition: “Wetland” means an area or of marsh, fen, peatland or watee; includes all inland waters such as lakes, reservoir, tanks, backwaters, lagoon, creeks, estuaries and manmade wetland and the zone of direct influence on wetlands that is to say the drainage area or catchment region of the wetlands as determined by the authority but does not include main river channels, paddy fields and the coastal wetland.
• There is no binding provision on the Governments to protect and conserve wetlands. Contracting Parties make a commitment to designate at least one site that meets the Ramsar criteria for inclusion in the List of Wetlands of International importance, promote the conservation and wise use of wetlands.
• The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
• Aquatic plants of wetlands absorb heavy metals and excessive nutrients thereby purifying water. For instance, Mangrove trees have the ability of storing metals, transferring these elements from the sediment and concentrating them in their tissues. [UPSC 2022, 2019]
5. “If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?
(a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.
(b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.
(c) 58 15 Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.
(d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.
2. Hokera Wetland is located in Jammu and Kashmir, not Punjab. Hokera wetland is about 10 km from Srinagar. It is a natural perennial wetland contiguous to the Jhelum basin. [UPSC 2022]
3. Renuka Wetland is the largest natural lake in Himachal Pradesh. It is a natural wetland with freshwater springs and inland subterranean karst formations, fed by a small stream flowing from the lower Himalayan out to the Giri river. [UPSC 2022]
4. Rudrasagar Lake, also known as Rudijala, is a lake located in Melaghar, Tripura. It is designated as a Ramsar site. A lowland sedimentation reservoir in the northeast hills, fed by three perennial streams discharging to the River Gomti. [UPSC 2022]
5. Sasthamkotta is located in the Kollam district of Kerala, not Tamil Nadu. It is the largest freshwater lake in Kerala and has always been a centre of tourist activity. [UPSC 2022]
1. Consider the following pairs:
Wetland/Lake: Location 18. Hokera Wetland Punjab 19. Renuka
Wetland Himachal
Pradesh
20. Rudrasagar Lake Tripura 21. Sasthamkotta Tamil Nadu
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
6. Kolleru Lake
• It is largest fresh water lake located between Krishna and Godavari deltas in Andhra Pradesh, India.
• Declared as wildlife sanctuary in 1999 under Wildlife Protection Act of 1972, and designated wetland of international importance in 2002 under Ramsar Convention.
• Important habitat for grey or spot billed pelican and many migratory birds such as Siberian crane, ibis, and painted storks.
7. Nainital lake
• It is a natural freshwater body, situated in town of Nainital in Uttarakhand.
• The lake is in crescent or kidney shape and is one of the most famous lakes of the Kumaon region.
• Bounded by Naini Peak on North West, Tiffin Point on the South West and snow-capped peaks on the north, the Nainital Lake offers a breathtaking view, especially during early morning and sunset.
8. Renuka lake
Q 1. Which one of the following is an artificial lake?
(a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
(b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
(c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)
(d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
• It is in the Sirmaur district of Himachal Pradesh in India and it is 672 m above the sea level.
• It is the largest lake in Himachal Pradesh, with a circumference of about 3214 m.
• It is designated as Ramsar site in 2005. Renuka dam project has been conceived as a storage project on the Giri river (a tributary of the Yamuna)-
> It envisages making a 148-metre high dam for supplying water to Delhi and other basin States.
• Around 90% of the cost of irrigation/drinking water component of the project will be provided by the Central government.
9. Kodaikanal/Kodai lake [UPSC 2018] • It is a manmade lake located in the Kodaikanal city in Tamil Nadu, India. • Nestled amidst the rolling slopes of the Palani Hills, it stands at an altitude of 7200 feet above sea level.
CHAPTER 6: PROTECTED AREAS: NATIONAL PARKS, WILDLIFE SANCTUARIES, TIGER RESERVES etc
PRELIMS PYQ CONTENT – UPSC CSE EXAM – Topic-wise Segregated
1. Biosphere Reserves [UPSC 2014]
• Definition: Biosphere reserves are areas of terrestrial and coastal ecosystems promoting solutions to reconcile the conservation of biodiversity with its sustainable use.
• Origin: In 1971 UNESCO launched its Man and Biosphere Programme.
• Recognition and control: They are internationally recognized, nominated by national governments and remain under sovereign jurisdiction of the states where they are located.
• Regulated under: As per the law, these regions of environmental protection related to the IUCN Category V Protected areas.
• Criteria for Designation of Biosphere Reserve
o A site must contain a protected and minimally disturbed core area of value of
nature conservation.
o Core area must be a bio-geographical unit and should be large enough to
sustain a viable population representing
all trophic levels.
o The involvement of local communities and use of their knowledge in
biodiversity preservation.
o Areas potential for preservation of traditional tribal or rural modes of living
for harmonious use of the environment.
2. Wildlife sanctuary: WPA act of 1972 provided for declaration of certain areas by state government as wildlife sanctuaries if area was thought to be of adequate ecological, geomorphological and natural significance; more than 500 WLS in India.
• Human activities: Some restricted human activities are allowed in WLS as specified in the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972.
• Highest number of wildlife sanctuaries located in Andaman& Nicobar Islands (96).
3. National Park: WPA, 1972 provides for declaration of NP by state governments of areas which are of adequate ecological, faunal, floral,
Q 13. The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of
(a) biosphere reserves
(b) botanical gardens
(c) national parks
(d) wildlife sanctuaries
geomorphological, natural or zoological importance; In some cases, Central government can also declare an area as NP; boundaries are fixed and defined; main objective is to protect natural environment and biodiversity conservation.
• Human activities: Settlement and private ownership of land not permitted + Grazing and fuel wood collection also prohibited + Only those human activities which are allowed by Chief Wildlife warden of state permitted inside NP + Species mentioned in Schedules of WPA not allowed to be hunted or captured + No alteration of the boundaries of a national park shall be made except on a resolution passed by State Legislature.
4. Desert National Park [UPSC 2020]
• It is situated in the Jaisalmer and Barmer districts of Rajasthan. It is one of the largest national parks covering an area of 3162 km².
• There are numerous settlements/Dhanis existing within the park.
• It is the second largest national park of India; became UNESCO world heritage site in 1980.
• It is the only place where State Bird of Rajasthan (Great Indian Bustard), Khejri tree are found naturally.
• Fauna: Great Indian Bustard (CR) is native to the park, oriental white backed vulture, Long billed Gyps, Stoliczka's Bushchat Saxicola macrorhyncha, Green Munia Amandava formosa MacQueen's or Houbara Bustard Chlamydotis maqueeni.
Q 23. With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are
correct?
5. It is spread over two districts.
6. There is no human habitation
inside the Park.
7. It is one of the natural habitats of the Great Indian Bustard.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
5. Barasingha/Swamp Deer
• It is a deer species distributed in the Indian subcontinent.
• Populations in northern and central India are fragmented, and two isolated populations occur in southwestern Nepal.
• In Assamese, barasingha is called dolhorina; dol meaning swamp.
• They occur in the Kanha National Park (M.P), in two localities in Assam, and in only six localities in Uttar Pradesh.
• IUCN Red List: Endangered
• CITES: Appendix I
• Wildlife Protection Act of 1972: Schedule I
Q 10. Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous?
(a) Kanha National Park
(b) Manas National Park
(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary
6. Kanha National park: Largest NP of Madhya Pradesh and one of important tiger reserves of India; declared as a national park in 1955. • Flora: lush green forests of Kanha,
composed majorly of Sal (Shorea Robusta) and other mixed forest trees
• Fauna: Tiger, Hard ground Barasingha, Gaurs, Leopard, Dhole, Indian python etc. 7. Manas National park: UNESCO World Heritage Site, an elephant reserve and a biosphere reserve; located in the Himalayan foothills in Assam; contiguous with the Royal Manas National Park in Bhutan + Fauna: known for its rare and endangered endemic wildlife such as the One-horned Rhino, Manipur bush quail, Assam roofed turtle, hispid hare, golden langur pygmy hog and wild water buffalo. [UPSC 2020]
8. Mudumalai National park: It is part of Nilgiri biosphere reserves; Moyar river separates Bandipur and Madumalai. [UPSC 2020]
• Flora: tall grasses, commonly referred to as Elephant Grass; Bamboo of the giant variety, valuable timber species like Teak, Rosewood, etc.
• Fauna: Flagship Species are Tiger and Asian Elephant; Other species are Indian Gaur, Spotted Deer, Common Langur, Malabar Giant Squirrel, Wild Dog, Jungle Cat among others; rare birds like Malabar grey hornbill, Malabar pied hornbill, Malabar laughing thrush among others.
9. Tal Chhapar wildlife sanctuary [UPSC 2020] • Located 85 km from Churu in Shekhawati District, it is known as the home of blackbuck and a variety of birds in Rajasthan.
• The sanctuary is flanked by the Great India Desert, Thar and boasts a unique ecosystem and is an important birdwatching destination in India.
• Top halting places for migratory birds such as harriers. The migratory birds pass through Tal Chhapar Sanctuary during September.
• Migratory birds seen are harriers, eastern imperial eagle, tawny eagle, short-toed eagle, sparrow, and little green bee-eaters, black ibis and demoiselle cranes + skylarks, crested larks, ring doves, and brown doves are seen round the year.
10. Critical Tiger Habitats: Critical wildlife habitat means such areas of National Parks and sanctuaries which are required to be kept as inviolate for the purposes of wildlife conservation + It is determined and notified by the Central Government in the MoEF&CC after an open process of consultation by an Expert Committee + They are identified under the Wild Life Protection Act, 1972 based on scientific evidence + Notified by the state government in consultation with the expert committee constituted for the purpose + Area of the core/critical tiger habitat-> Corbett (Uttarakhand): 821.99 sq. kms, Ranthambore (Rajasthan): 1113.36 sq. kms, Sundarbans (West Bengal): 1699.62 sq. kms and Nagarjunsagar Srisailam (part of Andhra Pradesh): 2595.72 sq. kms
11. Jim Corbett National park: It is the first national park in India; established in 1936 as Hailey national park to protect Bengal Tiger; first park under Project Tiger initiative. [UPSC 2020]
• Flora: Dense moist deciduous forest mainly consists of Sal, Haldu, peepal, rohini; Forest covers 73% area of the park and 10% of the area consists of grasslands.
• Fauna: It is well known for its tiger richness; Major animals are Elephants, Leopards, barking deer, hog deer, Chital, Indian Grey Mangoose.
12. Sunderbans tiger reserve (West Bengal): It is located in the Ganges delta + It is a national park, tiger reserve, biosphere reserve and Ramsar site + It is the only mangrove forest in the world inhabited by tigers + It is a UNESCO World heritage site. [UPSC 2020]
13. Ranathambore Tiger reserve: It was established initially as Sawai Madhopur Game Sanctuary in 1955 by the Government of India + In 1973, it was declared as a Tiger Reserve under Project Tiger + It lies in the eastern part of Rajasthan state in Karauli and Sawai Madhopur districts, at the junction of the Aravali and Vindhya hill ranges + The vegetation includes grasslands on plateaus and dense forests along the seasonal streams + The forest type is mainly tropical dry deciduous with ‘dhak’ (Butea monosperma), a
Q 25. Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”?
(a) Corbett
(b) Ranthambore
(c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam
(d) Sunderbans
species of tree capable of withstanding long periods of drought, being the commonest. [UPSC 2020]
14. Nagarjunasagar- Srisailam: It is the largest tiger reserve in India + It was notified in the year of 1978 and came under the protection of Project Tiger in 1983 + Fauna include
Bengal Tiger and many other species like leopard, rusty-spotted cat, pangolin, Mugger Crocodiles, Indian Rock Python, and innumerable varieties of birds are found + Flora include variety of forests ranging from southern tropical dry mixed deciduous forest till southern thorn forest.
15. Askot wildlife sanctuary: Established in 1986 to protect the endangered Musk Deer and its habitat; known as ‘Green Paradise on the Earth’. [UPSC 2020]
• Fauna: snow leopard, Himalayan black bear, Himalayan tahr, blue sheep, serow loong, monal, kalij pheasant besides musk deer.
• This sanctuary has been set up primarily with the object of conserving the musk deer and its habitat.
16. Kishanpur wildlife sanctuary [UPSC 2020] • It is a part of the Dudhwa Tiger Reserve near Mailani in Uttar Pradesh founded in 1972.
• Fauna: tiger, chital, hog deer, wild boars, otters etc.
• migratory birds like falcons, drongos, owls, egrets, and peacocks can be spotted in the open meadows.
17. Gangotri National park [UPSC 2020] • Fourth largest NP in the country with total area of 2390km2; situated in the upper catchment of Bhagirathi River;
• It forms a continuity between Govind National Park and Kedarnath Wildlife Sanctuary
• Flora: Common vegetation include Chir pine, Deodar, Fir, Spruce etc.
• Fauna: Snow leopard, Tiger, Himalayan Snowcock, Himalayan Thar, musk deer, Ibex; birds include Bulbul, Doves, Parakeet, patridges etc.
18. Manas National park: UNESCO World Heritage Site, an elephant reserve and a
Q 11. Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat?
1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary
2. Gangotri National Park
3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary
4. Manas National Park
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
biosphere reserve; located in the Himalayan foothills in Assam; contiguous with the Royal Manas National Park in Bhutan.
• Fauna: known for its rare and endangered endemic wildlife such as the One-horned Rhino, Manipur bush quail, Assam roofed turtle, hispid hare, golden langur pygmy hog and wild water buffalo.
19. Manas National Park: UNESCO World Heritage Site, an elephant reserve and a biosphere reserve; located in the Himalayan foothills in Assam; contiguous with the Royal Manas National Park in Bhutan.
• Fauna: known for its rare and endangered endemic wildlife such as the One-horned Rhino, Manipur bush quail, Assam roofed turtle, hispid hare, golden langur pygmy hog and wild water buffalo.
20. Namdapha National park: Protected area in Changlang district of Arunachal Pradesh; crossed by Noa Dihing river; located on Indo Myanmar border.
• Fauna: Namdapha Flying squirrel (CR) is endemic to this park, Dhole, Red Panda, Red fox etc. are other important mammals.
• Others: Important tribal groups include Lisu, Chakma, Tangsa and Singhpo.
21. Valley of Flowers National park: Located in chamoli region; known for its meadows of endemic alpine flowers and variety of flora. [UPSC 2019]
• It wholly lies in temperate alpine zone; valley has three sub-alpine between 3,200m and 3,500m which is the limit for trees, lower alpine between 3,500m and
3,700m, and higher alpine above 3,700m • Fauna: Musk deer, snow leopard, brown bear, blue sheep Red giant flying squirrel, Himalayan black bear, Himalayan weasel etc.
• Flora: Flowers found are mostly orchids, poppies, primulas etc.
22. Neora Valley National Park
• It is a national park declared in 1992 which is situated in the Kalimpong district of West Bengal.
• It belongs in the Eastern Himalayas Range with a rich and diverse biological eco system.
Q 2. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?
(a) Manas National Park
(b) Namdapha National Park
(c) Neora Valley National Park
(d) Valley of Flowers National Park
• Rechela Danda is the height point of the Neora Valley National Park, with an elevation of 10,600 ft.
• The Neora River is the main river of this park.
• Forest type: Tropical, sub-tropical, sub temperate, and temperate vegetative system. Rhododendron, bamboo, oak, ferns, sal are the main species in the forests.
• Mammals: It consists more than 30 species of mammals, which include the Red Panda, Clouded Leopard, Musk Deer, Mithun, Ghoral, Wild Dog, Himalayan Black Dear, five species of civet, sloth bear, golden cat, wild boar, serow, barking deer, sambar and Himalayan flying squirrel.
• Birds: There are more than 100 species of birds which include Eagle, Tragopan, Cuckoo, Wood Owl, Barbet, Woodpecker, Babbler, Robin, Thrush, Flycatcher, Jungle Crow, Sunbird, Maynas, Orioles, Warbler, Laughingthrush, Flowerpecker, Flycatcher and others.
23. Agasthyamala Biosphere reserve [UPSC 2019]
• It was established in 2001 and includes 3,500.36 km2 out of which 1828 km² is in Kerala and 1672.36 km² is in Tamil Nadu.
• Protected Area: The protected areas of the reserver includes Neyyar, Peppara and Shenduruny wildlife sanctuaries of Kerala and Kalakkad-Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve of Tamil Nadu.
• Ecoregions: Tropical wet evergreen forests, South Western Ghats moist deciduous forests, South Western Ghats montane rain forests and Shola.
• It is the habitat for 2,000 varieties of medicinal plants, of which at least 50 are rare and endangered species.
• Home to rare animals which include tiger, Asian Elephant, and Nilgiri Tahr.
• It is also home to the Kanikaran, one of the oldest surviving ancient tribes in the world. • It is a part of World Network of Biosphere Reserves under MAB Programme of UNESCO.
Q 5. Which of the following are in
Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?
(a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife sanctuaries; and Kalakad
Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
(b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park
(c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park
(d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and NagarjunasagarSrisailam Tiger Reserve
24. Pakhui (Pakke tiger reserve): It is located in East Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh + Bounded by Kameng river in west and north and by Pakke river in the east + Habitat types are lowland semi-evergreen, evergreen and Eastern Himalayan Broadleaf forests + It adjoins reserve forests and Assam’s Nameri national park. [UPSC 2018]
Q 6. In which one of the following states is Pakhui wildlife sanctuary located?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Manipur
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Nagaland
25. Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary, Madhya Pradesh [UPSC 2017]
• Kuno River, one of the major tributaries of Chambal River flows through the entire length bisecting the National Park division.
• Wildlife Institute of India and Wildlife Trust of India had shortlisted Palpur-Kuno park as habitats for Cheetahs and Asiatic lions.
• Dominant tree species: Anogeisus pendula, Acacia catechu, Boswellia serrata, Diospyros melanoxylon, leucophloea, Ziziphus mauritiana and Ziziphus xylopyrus.
• Leopard and striped hyena are the only larger carnivores within the Kuno National Park, with the single lone tiger T-38 having returned to Ranthambore in 2021.
Q 15. Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? [Based on Current Affairs 2016-2017]
(a) Corbett National Park
(b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Sariska National Park
26. Khangchendzonga National Park [UPSC 2015]: Includes a unique diversity of plains, valleys, spectacular snow-capped mountains covered with forests; falls in Himalayan Global biodiversity hotspots; UNESCO
World heritage site (first mixed heritage site in India); recently included in MAB program. • Important Fauna: Musk deer, Snow
leopard, Himalayan tahr, red panda, Himalayan black bear etc.
• Others: Lepcha tribal settlements; Tholung monastery located in the park’s buffer zone.
27. Nanda Devi national park: Declared World Heritage site by UNESCO in 1988; Valley of flowers and Nanda Devi are encompassed in Nanda Devi Biosphere reserve.
• Flora: Meadows of alpine flowers, fir, birch, rhodendron and juniper.
Q 1. Which one of the following National Parks has a climate that varies from tropical to subtropical, temperate and arctic?
(a) Khangchendzonga National park (b) Nandadevi National Park
(c) Neora Valley National Park
(d) Namdapha National park
• Fauna: Himalayan Musk deer, serow, Himalayan tahr, snow leopard, Himalayan black bear.
28. Namdapha National park: Protected area in Changlang district of Arunachal Pradesh; crossed by Noa Dihing river; located on Indo Myanmar border.
• Fauna: Namdapha Flying squirrel (CR) is endemic to this park, Dhole, Red Panda, Red fox etc. are other important mammals.
• Others: Important tribal groups include Lisu, Chakma, Tangsa and Singhpo.
• It has a climate that varies from tropical to subtropical, temperate and arctic.
29. Neora Valley National Park
• It is a compact patch of virgin forest, rich in biodiversity located in the Eastern Himalayas, a global 'biodiversity hotspot'.
• It was notified as a National Park in 1992. • It is contiguous with Sikkim and Bhutan at its northern and north-eastern boundaries respectively and links the Pangolakha Wildlife Sanctuary in Sikkim and the Toorsa Strict Reserve of Bhutan.
• It is also an integral part of the Kanchenjunga Landscape.
• Many of these species face the threat of extinction such as Balanophora neorensis, Balanophora polyandra, Betula utilis, Swertia chirata, Swertia bimaculata, Rananculus tricuspes, Digitalis purpuria, Geranium nepalense, Taxus baccata, and Ilex hookeri.
• Fauna include the Red Panda, Himalayan Tahr, Himalayan Black Bear, Sāmbar, Barking Deer, Serow, Goral, Dhole, Clouded Leopard, Chinese Pangolin etc.
30. Bhitarkanika National Park [UPSC 2015]: Located in kendrapara district of Odisha; second largest mangrove ecosystem in the country, also a Ramsar site; inundated by rivers like Brahmani, Baitrani and Pathsala.
• Fauna: Salt water crocodile, Olive ridley turtles, Indian python, black ibis etc.
• Flora: Mangroves (Sundari and thespian); grasses like Indigo, bush etc.
31. Keibul Lamjao National park [UPSC 2015]: Located in Bishnupur district of Manipur; world’s largest floating park; integral
Q 7. Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity?
(a) Bhitarkanika National Park
(b) Keibul Lamjao National Park
(c) Keoladeo Ghana National park
(d) Sultanpur National park
component of Loktak lake (largest freshwater lake of NE India).
• Features: Characterized by many floating decomposed plant materials called Phumdis; declared as Ramsar wetland site.
• Fauna: Natural refuge of Endangered Manipur Eld’s deer or Sangai deer, brow antlered deer (flagship species), Hog deer etc.
32. Keoladeo Ghana national park [UPSC 2015]: Lies at the confluence of Gambhir and Banganga rivers; sanctuary hosts thousands of birds; man-made and man-managed wetland; listed on Montreux record under Ramsar convention; UNESCO World heritage site.
• Flora: vegetation of this wetland is mostly kadam, babul, kair, ber etc.
• Fauna: world’s most important breeding areas for birds; other species are cranes, pelican, Eagles, Flycatchers, Demoiselle cranes, falcons, jackals, chital, Nilgai, hyenas, porcupine etc.
33. Sultanpur National park: It is a bird paradise for bird watchers + It is famous for its migratory as well as resident birds; important fauna include Blackbuck, Nilgai, Hog deer, Sambar, Leopard + Birds include Siberian Cranes, Greater Flamingo, Demoiselle Crane etc.
34. Eco-sensitive zones [UPSC 2014]: These are buffer zones around protected areas (NP, WLS etc) where only regulated activities for specialized eco-system are allowed; shock absorbers.
• ESZs are notified by MoEFCC, Indian Govt under Environment Protection Act 1986.
• Activities prohibited: Commercial mining, setting up of saw mills and industries causing pollution and major hydropower projects are prohibited.
• Activities restricted with safeguards: Felling of trees, drastic change in agriculture system and commercial use of natural water resources, including ground water harvesting and setting up of hotels and resorts.
Q 20. With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities in those
zones except agriculture
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
• Activities permitted: Ongoing agriculture and horticulture practices by local communities, rainwater harvesting, use of renewable energy sources etc.
35. Madhav Gadgil committee recommendations
• Entire western ghat (1,29,037sq km) should be designated as Ecologically sensitive area (ESA).
• Classified Western Ghats boundary into Ecologically Sensitive Zones (ESZ) 1, 2 and 3.
• ESZ-1 being of high priority, almost all developmental activities (mining, thermal power plants etc.) were restricted in it.
• No new dams based on large-scale storage be permitted in ESZ 1.
• Constitution of a Western Ghats Ecology Authority (WGEA), as a statutory authority under the Ministry of Environment and Forests, with the powers under Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 for protection of the region.
36. Kasturirangan committee recommendations
• Only 37% (i.e. 60,000 sq. km.) of the total area be brought under ESA.
• Complete ban on mining, quarrying and sand mining in ESA.
• Distinguished between cultural (58% occupied in the Western Ghats by it like human settlements, agricultural fields and plantations) and natural landscape (90% of it should come under ESA).
• Current mining areas in the ESA should be phased out within the next five years, or at the time of expiry of mining lease, whichever is earlier.
• No thermal power be allowed and hydropower projects are allowed only after detailed study.
• Red industries i.e. which are highly polluting be strictly banned in these areas.
CHAPTER 7: CLIMATE CHANGE + ORGANIZATIONS + AGREEMENTS + INITIATIVES
PRELIMS PYQ CONTENT – UPSC CSE EXAM – Topic-wise Segregated
1. Common carbon metric by UNEP: This tool provides a way to establish a baseline, measure, report, and verify energy savings and emissions reductions from buildings around the world in a consistent and comparable way. It is applied to the specific inventory of the buildings under study. Such an inventory can be developed from a top-down or bottom-up approach, depending on the scope and goal of the investigation. [UPSC 2021]
10. The “Common Carbon Metric” supported by UNEP, has been developed for
(a) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world
(b) Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading
(c) Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries
(d) Assessing the overall carbon foot-print caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit time
2. Climate Action Tracker [UPSC 2022] • It is an independent scientific analysis that tracks government climate action and measures it against the globally agreed Paris Agreement aim of “holding warming well below 2°C, and pursuing efforts to limit warming to 1.5°C.”
• A collaboration of two organizations, Climate Analytics and New Climate Institute, the CAT has been providing this independent analysis to policymakers since 2009.
3. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change(IPCC)
• International body for assessing the science related to climate change.
• It was set up in 1988 by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) to provide policymakers with regular assessments of the scientific basis of climate change.
• IPCC assessments provide a scientific basis for governments at all levels to develop climate related policies, and they underlie negotiations at the UN Climate Conference – the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
• Every few years (about 7 years), the IPCC produces assessment reports that are the
3.“Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a :
(a) Database created by coalition of research organisations
(b) Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”
(c) Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change”
(d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank
most comprehensive scientific evaluations of the state of earth’s climate.
4. UNFCCC
• The UNFCCC, signed in 1992 at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development also known as the Earth Summit, the Rio Summit or the Rio Conference
• It entered into force on March 21, 1994. • Objective: “to achieve, stabilization of greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system”.
• Near universal membership (197 Parties) and is the parent treaty of the 2015 Paris Agreement.
• Secretariat: Bonn, Germany.
5. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
• Founded in 1972 following the landmark UN Conference on the Human Environment
• It sets the global environmental agenda, promotes the sustainable development within the United Nations system, and serves as an authoritative advocate for global environment protection
• Major Reports: Emission Gap Report, Adaptation gap report, Global Environment Outlook, Frontiers, Invest into Healthy Planet
• Major Campaigns: Beat Pollution, UN75, World Environment Day, Wild for Life
• Headquarters: Nairobi, Kenya
• The United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA) is the governing body of the UN Environment programme; It meets biennially to set priorities for global environmental policies and develop international environmenal law.
6. Climate and Clean Air Coalition [UPSC 2017]
• The governments of Bangladesh, Mexico, Sweden, Ghana, Canada and USA along with UNEP came together in 2012 to treat short-lived climate pollutants as a collective and urgent challenge.
Q 11. Consider the following statements:
1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to reduce Short Lived
Climate Pollutants is a unique
initiative of G20 group of countries
• It is a voluntary partnership of governments, intergovernmental organizations, businesses, scientific institutions and civil society organizations committed to improving air quality and protecting the climate through actions to reduce short-lived climate pollutants.
• India has joined the coalition in 2019. Focus of CCAC: It focuses on Black carbon, Methane, Hydrofluorocarbons and tropospheric ozone.
2. The CCAC focusses on methane, black carbon and
hydrochlorofluorocarbons
Which of the given statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
7. Climate Group [UPSC 2022]
• It is an international non-profit founded in 2003, with offices in London, New York, New Delhi, Amsterdam and Beijing.
• Programmes focusing on renewable energy and reducing GHG emissions.
• Acts as secretariat for Under2 Coalition. 8. EP100 [UPSC 2022]
• It is a global initiative led by The Climate Group and the Alliance to Save Energy.
• It brings together a growing group of energy-smart companies committed to improving their energy productivity and doing more with less green-house gas emission.
• India’s own Mahindra group is one of the leaders in the ongoing battle to cut energy consumption and carbon dioxide emissions by increasingly switching to renewable energy.
9. Under2 Coalition [UPSC 2022]
• It is a global community of state and regional governments committed to ambitious climate action in line with the Paris Agreement.
• Signatories commit to keeping global temperature rises to well below 2°C with efforts to reach 1.5°C.
• It brings together over 270 governments representing 1.75 billion people and 50% of the global economy.
10. International Energy Agency (IEA) [UPSC 2022]
• Established in 1974 as per framework of the OECD, IEA is an autonomous intergovernmental organisation.
4. Consider the following statements:
1. The Climate Group is an
international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.
2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. 3. EP100 brings together leading
companies committed to driving
innovation in energy efficiency and
increasing competitiveness while
delivering on emission reduction
goals.
4. Some Indian companies are
members of EP100.
5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2
Coalition”.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1,2, 4 and 5
(b) 1,3 and 4 only
(c) 2,3 and 5 only
(d) 1,2, 3, 4 and 5
• Four areas: energy security, economic development, environmental awareness and engagement worldwide.
• Headquarters at Paris, France.
• Composition and eligibility: It has 30 members at present. IEA family also includes eight association countries. A candidate country must be a member country of the OECD. But all OECD members are not IEA members.
• Reports: Global Energy & CO2 Status Report; World Energy Outlook; World Energy Statistics; World Energy Balances and Energy Technology Perspectives.
11. Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) [UPSC 2018]
• It is a UN Mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies emerged at Rio+20 (the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development) was held in Brazil in 2012.
• PAGE deploys the expertise and broad convening power of five UN agencies whose mandates, expertise combined can offer integrated and holistic support to countries on greener and more inclusive growth trajectories.
o International Labour Organization (ILO)
o United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
o United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO)
o United Nations Institute for Training and Research (UNITAR) and
o United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
• It represents a mechanism to coordinate UN action on green economy and to assist countries in achieving and monitoring the emerging Sustainable Development Goals, especially SDG 8.
Q 3. The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at
(a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
(b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
(c) The United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris
(d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi
12. Global Alliance for Climate Smart Agriculture (GACSA) [UPSC 2018]
• GACSA is an inclusive, voluntary and action-oriented multi-stakeholder platform on Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA).
• Its vision is to improve food security, nutrition and resilience in the face of climate change. GACSA aims to catalyze and help create transformational partnerships to encourage actions that reflect an integrated approach to the three pillars of CSA.
• Concept of Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA) was originally developed by FAO and officially presented and at Hague Conference on Agriculture, Food Security and Climate Change in 2010.
• Membership in the Alliance does not create any binding obligations and each member individually determines the nature of its participation.
• India is just a signatory to GACSA.
Q 10. With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture’ (GACSA) which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. GACSA is an outcome of the
climate summit held in Paris in
2015
2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations
3. India was instrumental in the
creation of GACSA
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
13. Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now [UPSC 2018]
• Initiative launched by UNFCCC secretariat to increase climate action by engaging non Party stakeholders (sub-national govts, companies, organizations, individuals) in 2015.
• It promotes voluntary use of carbon market mechanisms recognized under Convention.
• The initiative is not a certification scheme for its participants.
• Tool to promote additional voluntary action on climate, and to provide recognition for it.
• An organization can become a participant by signing the Climate Neutral Now Pledge, following the three steps (Measure, Reduce, Contribute) and reporting on its actions and achievements annually.
Q 11. “Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by [Based on Current Affairs 2017-18]
(a) The Intergovernmental Panel on climate change
(b) The UNEP Secretariat
(c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
(d) The World Meteorological Organization
14. Global Climate Change alliance [UPSC 2017]
• It is an initiative of the European Union. • It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to
Q 8. With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an initiative of the European Union
integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing
countries to integrate climate
change into their development
budgets
3. It is coordinated by World
Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable
Development (WBCSD)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
15. National Action Plan on Climate Change: Launched in 2008 by PM Council on Climate Change. 8 national missions form core which represent multi-pronged, long term and integrated strategies.
• National Solar Mission: Governed by MoNRE + Target of JNNSM enhanced to 100 GW by 2022->includes 60GW (large and medium grid solar projects) and 40GW (rooftop solar).
• National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE): Improve energy efficiency + Governed by Ministry of Power; commenced in 2010 to achieve GHG reduction of 98.55 million tonnes/year + Annual fuel savings of 23 million tonnes.
• National Mission for Sustainable Habitat: Governed by Ministry of Housing and urban affairs + It commenced in 2010 with aim to reduce emission in cities + It focuses on GHG reduction opportunities by increasing energy efficiency of building, improving SWM.
• National Water Mission: Governed by Ministry of Jal Shakti + Commenced in 2011 with aim to ensure water security and improve access to water resources + It covers entire sweep of water management to fight climate change impacts.
Q 1. Which of the following best describes/ describe the aim of the ‘Green India Mission’ of the Government of India?
1. Incorporating environmental
benefits and costs into the Union
and State Budgets thereby
implementing the `green
accounting’
2. Launching the second green
revolution to enhance agricultural
output so as to ensure food security to one and all in the future
3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and responding to climate
change by a combination of
adaptation and mitigation measures
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
• National Mission for Sustaining Himalayan Ecosystem: Governed by DoS&T + Commenced in 2011 + It is aimed at developing capacity to assess health status of Himalayan ecosystem.
• National Mission on Strategic knowledge for Climate change: Governed by DoS&T + It aimed at establishment of knowledge network among existing knowledge institutions.
• National Mission for Green India: Governed by MoEF&CC, commenced in 2014 + Aimed to increase forest and tree cover + It envisages a holistic view of greening and focuses on multiple ecosystem services, especially, biodiversity, water, biomass, preserving mangroves, wetlands, critical habitats etc. along with carbon sequestration as a co benefit. [UPSC 2016]
• National Mission for Sustainable agriculture: Commenced in 2012 aimed to climate-proof agriculture and reduce emissions from sector. Four components
are:
o Soil Health Management->aimed at nutrient management through
judicious use of chemical fertilizers.
o Rain-fed area development to develop agri-land under integrated
farming system.
o Sub-Mission on agro-forestry to promote plantation along with crops.
o Climate change and sustainable agriculture: Monitoring, Modeling
and Networking (CCSAMMN) for
creating models on adaptation and
dissemination of information about
climate change.
16. UN REDD Program = It is collaborative initiative of FAO, UNDP and UNEP + Multilateral body which partners with developing countries by assisting them to develop capacities needed to meet UNFCCC REDD+ requirements + It has country-based approach that provides advisory and technical support tailored to national circumstances. [UPSC 2016]
Q 6. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Proper design and effective implementation of UN-REDD+ Programme can significantly contribute to
1. protection of biodiversity
2. resilience of forest ecosystems 3. poverty reduction
17. REDD+: Climate change mitigation solution developed by parties to UNFCCC + It incentivizes developing countries to keep their forest standing by offering results-based payments to remove forest carbon emissions.
• REDD+ in UNFCCC: First negotiated in UNFCC 2005 (COP-11) + In 2013, seven decisions on REDD+ produced known as “Warsaw Framework on REDD-Plus” + REDD+ goes beyond deforestation and forest degradation and includes role of conservation, sustainable management of forests and enhancement of carbon stocks + UNFCCC rulebook on REDD+ finalized in COP-21 in 2015 + It has identified the following three topics for supporting national REDD+ governance structures, with an overarching principle of stakeholder participation:
o Country-led multi-stakeholder governance assessments that contribute
to the development and implementation
of national REDD+ strategies (for
tackling forest degradation and
biodiversity loss) and nationally owned
monitoring frameworks.
o Social standards, including poverty and gender.
o Land and/or carbon tenure and the role of REDD+ within national land use
strategies.
• India’s REDD+ Strategy: Prepared by Indian Council for Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), Dehradun + It builds upon existing national circumstances updated in line with NAPCC, Green India Mission and INDCs + Please Note: ICFRE is an autonomous organisation or governmental agency under the Ministry of Environment and Forests, Government of India.
18. Differences between REDD and REDD+ • UN REDD: Headquarters at Geneva, Switzerland + 64 partner countries + multilateral collaborative programme of FAO, UNDP and UNEP + created in 2008 in response to the UNFCCC decisions on the Bali Action Plan and REDD at COP-13 + It partners with developing countries to support them in establishing the technical
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
capacities needed to implement REDD+ and meet UNFCCC requirements for REDD.
• REDD+: Voluntary climate change mitigation approach developed by parties to the UNFCCC + It goes beyond simply deforestation and forest degradation + It incentivize developing countries to reduce emissions from deforestation and forest degradation, conserve forest carbon stocks, sustainably manage forests + Developing countries would receive results-based payments for results-based actions. +In addition to UN-REDD programme, World Bank’s Forest Carbon Partnership Facility, GEF and GCF also assist it.
19. Agenda 21 [UPSC 2016]
• It is a non-binding voluntarily implemented action plan of United Nations with regard to sustainable development.
• It is a comprehensive plan of action to be taken globally, nationally and locally by organizations of UN system, governments and major groups in every area.
• It is adopted at UN Conference on Environment and Development (Rio Summit), 1992.
Q 7. With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements :
1. It is a global action plan for sustainable development
2. It originated in the World Summit on Sustainable Development held in
Johannesburg in 2002
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
20. Biocarbon fund initiative [UPSC 2015] • It is a multilateral fund supported by donor governments and managed by World Bank.
• It promotes and rewards reduced GHG emissions through better land management, including REDD + and Climate smart agriculture.
• It was established in 2013.
• It is supported by Germany, Norway, Switzerland, UK and USA.
Q 2. ‘BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the
(a) Asian Development Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) United Nations Environment Programme (d) World Bank
21. Green Climate Fund (GCF) [UPSC 2015]: Established at COP-16 at Cancun in 2010; chief instrument of fulfilling developed countries collective promise to put $100bn annually by 2020; mechanism to redistribute money from developed to developing world.
• COP 16 ==> Decision Made to establish GCF.
• COP 17 ==> Parties approved the Governing Instrument for the GCF ==> Legal approval
• COP 18 ==> Songdo, Incheon, Republic of Korea hosted GCF.
• Structure: Fund governed by GCF board consisting of 24 members equally divided between developed and developing countries; accountable to and functions under COP to support projects; independent secretariat in Songdo, Republic of Korea; World Bank serves as interim trustee of GCF.
Q 13. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct?
1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change
2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and
World Bank
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
22. Global Environment Facility (GEF) [UPSC 2014]
• Setup as a fund under World Bank in 1991. • Moved out of WB system during Rio Earth summit in 1992 to become permanent and separate institution.
• Multilateral grants to developing countries+ Based in Washington DC.
• It serves as a financial mechanism for CBD, UNFCCC, UNCCD, Stockholm convention on PoPs, Minamata convention on mercury.
• India is both donor and recipient of GEF+ It also supports implementation of Montreal protocol in countries with economies in transition.
• financial contribution is replenished every four years by GEF 39 donor countries.
• The funds available to developing countries and economies in transition.
• Six designated focal areas are Biodiversity, climate change, international waters, ozone depletion, land degradation and persistent organic pollutants.
Q 1. With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) It serves as financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change’
(b) It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at global level
(c) It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with specific aim to protect their environment
(d) Both (a) and (b)
23. Earth Hour [UPSC 2014]
• Earth Hour is a global movement for environmental conservation started by World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) in 2007.
• It is an annual event, that takes place on the last Saturday of March.
• Aim: To call attention to global warming, loss of biodiversity, and climate change.
• During the Earth Hour, people turn off their lights for an hour as a sign of global solidarity.
• Theme for 2022: “Shape our Future
Q 19. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Earth Hour’
1. It is an initiative of UNEP and
UNESCO
2. It is a movement in which the
participants switch off the lights
for one hour on a certain day every year
3. It is a movement to raise
awareness about climate change
and the need to save the planet
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
24. TRAFFIC [UPSC 2017]
• It is a wildlife trade monitoring network and NGO working globally on the trade of wild animals and plants.
• It is founded in 1976 as a strategic alliance of WWF and IUCN headquartered at Cambridge, United Kingdom.
• It aims to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.
• Governed by the TRAFFIC Committee, composed of members of TRAFFIC's partner organizations, WWF and IUCN.
• It also works in close co-operation with the secretariat of CITES.
Q 1. Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC):
1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme
(UNEP)
2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to
ensure that trade in wild animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
25. IUCN [UPSC 2015]
• It is a membership union uniquely composed of both government and civil society organizations.
• It is created in 1948, it is the global authority on the status of the natural world.
• It is headquartered in Switzerland.
• IUCN Red List of threatened Species, is the world's most comprehensive inventory of
Q 8. With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an
the global conservation status of plant and animal species.
• It runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments.
26. CITES [UPSC 2015]: It is also known as Washington convention is a multilateral treaty to protect endangered plants and animals + It is entered into force in July 1975; 183 parties + Secretariat is administered by UNEP and is located at Geneva, Switzerland.
• Aim: Ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten survival of species in wild-> bans hunting, capturing and selling of endangered or threatened species.
• Functions
o Subjecting international trade in specimens of selected species to certain
controls.
o All import, export, re-export and introduction from the sea of species
covered by the convention has to be
authorized through a licensing system.
o Each party must designate one or more Management authorities in charge of
administering that licensing system and
one or more scientific authorities to
advise them on the effects of trade on the
status of the species.
• Conference of Parties (COP): Supreme decision-making body and comprises all its Parties.
• Legally binding: CITES is legally binding on the parties although it does not take place of national laws.
• Appendix I: Species threatened with extinction-> trade permitted only in exceptional circumstances.
• Appendix II: Species not necessarily threatened with extinction, but in which trade must be controlled to avoid utilization incompatible with their survival.
• Appendix III: Species that are protected in at least one country, which has asked other CITES parties for assistance in controlling trade.
international agreement between
governments
2. IUCN runs thousands of field
projects around the world to better manage natural environments
3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this
Convention does not take the place of national laws
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
27. Polar Code [UPSC 2022]
• The International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters (the Polar Code) is a new code adopted by the IMO which entered into force on 1 January 2017.
• It acknowledges that polar waters may impose additional demands on ships beyond those normally encountered.
• It is mandatory under both the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS) and the International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL).
• It covers the full range of design, construction, equipment, operational, training, search and rescue and environmental protection matters relevant to ships operating in the inhospitable waters surrounding the two poles.
• It applies to certain ships that will operate on domestic or international voyages in Arctic or Antarctic waters.
15. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?
(a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
(b) It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.
(c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.
(d) It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.
28. United Nations Capital Development Fund [UPSC 2021]: It was established by the United Nations General Assembly(UNGA) in 1966 + Its objective is to provide microfinance access to Least Developed Countries (LDCs) + It is an autonomous, voluntarily funded UN organization affiliated with UNDP + Funding comes from UN member states, foundations, and the private sector + It is headquartered at New York + Financing model work through two channels: Financial Inclusion and localized investments.
29. Tree City of the World [UPSC 2021]: Hyderabad is the only city from India to have been recognised as a 2020 Tree City of the World by the Arbor Day Foundation and the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) for its commitment to growing and maintaining urban forests.
30. Hyderabad was selected for the recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the urban forests. Hyderabad earned recognition in the Foundation’s second year of the programme along with 51 other cities globally (120 cities from 63 countries assessed) and the only city in India to get this recognition so far. Through this recognition, Hyderabad
1. Statement 1:
The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World Statement 2:
Hyderabad was selected for recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the Urban forests.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1
(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct.
(d) Statement 1 is not correct but
Statement 2 is correct.
joins a network of like-minded cities who recognise the importance of trees in building healthy, resilient and happy cities.
31. Arbor Day Foundation: It is a nonprofit conservation and education organization founded in 1972 in Nebraska, United States, by John Rosenow + It is the largest nonprofit membership organization dedicated to tree planting + Its vision is to help others understand and use trees as a solution to global issues such as air quality, water quality, poverty, and hunger.
32. Climate Smart Village: CCAFS proposes to address the fundamental questions via participatory research at Climate-Smart Villages (CSVs), sites ranging from village to district scale at which portfolios of CSA interventions are tested in a globally comparable manner with farmers, development agencies and the private sector. [UPSC 2021]
33. Climate Smart Agriculture: It is an approach that helps guide actions to transform agri-food systems towards green and climate resilient practices + It aims to tackle three main objectives: sustainably increasing agricultural productivity and incomes; adapting and building resilience to climate change; and reducing and/or removing greenhouse gas emissions, where possible + It supports the FAO Strategic Framework 2022-2031 based on the Four Betters: better production, better nutrition, a better environment and a better life for all, leaving no one behind. [UPSC 2021]
34. ICRISAT (50th Anniversary): It is an international organization which conducts agricultural research for rural development + Headquartered at Patancheru, Hyderabad + Founded in 1972 by a consortium of organisations convened by the Ford and the Rockefeller foundations + Charter was signed by the FAO and the UNDP + It conducts its research under four themes: Agro-ecosystems development, Harnessing plant biotechnology and bioinformatics, Crop improvement and management, and Institutions, Markets, policy and Impacts + It is managed by a full-time Director General functioning under the overall guidance of an international Governing Board + It founded the Smart Food Initiative in 2013 with the vision to create a world where food is
2. In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-smart Agriculture, consider the following statements:
1. The ‘Climate-Smart village’ approach in India is a part of a project led by climate change, Agriculture and food security (CCAFS), an international research programme.
2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR)
headquartered in France.
3. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics
(ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’S research centers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
‘Smart’ – good for you, the planet and the farmer + ICRISAT genebank serves as a repository for the collection of germplasm of the six mandate crops – sorghum, pearl millet, finger millet, chickpea, pigeonpea and groundnut; and five small millets – foxtail millet, little millet, kodo millet, proso millet and barnyard millet + It is headquartered in Hyderabad, Telangana, India, with two regional hubs and six country offices in sub-Saharan Africa. It is one of the CGIAR’s research centres. [UPSC 2021]
35. New York Declaration on Forests (2014) [UPSC 2021]
• Endorsement: The New York Declaration on Forests (NYDF) is a political declaration calling for global action to protect and restore forests. It is first endorsed at United Nations Secretary-General's Climate Summit held in New York in 2014.
• Timeline: The declaration includes ambitious targets to end natural forest loss by 2030, with a 50% reduction by 2020 as a milestone toward its achievement.
• Legality: It is a voluntary and non-legally binding political declaration.
• Stakeholders: It grew out of dialogue among governments, companies and civil Society and indigenous communities.
• Signatories: It is currently endorsed by over 190 entities including more than 50 governments, more than 50 of the world’s biggest companies, and more than 50 influential civil society and indigenous organizations. It is not endorsed by India.
36. Glasgow Leaders’ Declaration on Forests and Land Use: It is an ambitious declaration initiated by United Kingdom to “halt deforestation” and land degradation by 2030 + India is not a signatory as it objected to “trade” being interlinked to climate change and forest issues in the agreement + It has over 105 signatories including the UK, US, Russia and China.
5. With reference to the ‘’New York Declaration on Forests’’, which of the following statements are correct?
1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014
2. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests
3. It is a legally binding international declaration
4. It is endorsed by governments, big companies and indigenous communities. 5. India was one of the signatories at its inception
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 5
37. R2 Code of Practices [UPSC 2021]
• R2 stands for Responsible Recycling; It is a standard created for the electronics
12. “R2 Code of Practices” constitute a tool available for promoting the adoption of
recycling industry by Sustainable Electronics Recycling International (SERI). • Expected outcomes of certification of R2 Standard: An electronics recycling company that is R2 certified will benefit by achieving higher profit margins and additional market share through improvements in its operating systems and processes, and the status bestowed by certification + It will be able to assure its upstream clients and customers that it takes appropriate measures at its facility to protect the environment, worker and public health, and data security.
• Authorization: Only International Accreditation Forum (IAF) multilateral recognition arrangement signatory accreditation bodies (ABs) meeting the requirements of this Code of Practices and authorized by R2 Solutions may accredit CBs.
• SERI: It is the housing body and ANSI - accredited Standards Development Organization for the R2 Standard + Stakeholders who contributed to the creation of these standards include the U.S. Environmental protection agency; regulators from state agencies; electronics recyclers, refurbishers, and their trade associations; OEMs/customers of electronics recycling services; and non -
governmental organizations
(a) Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry (b) Ecological management of ‘’Wetlands of International Importance” under the Ramsar Convention
(c) Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands (d) ‘’Environmental Impact Assessment’’ in the exploitation of natural resources
38. UN-HABITAT: It is a UN agency responsible for sustainable urban development and human settlements + It is an intergovernmental body established in 1978 + It is headquartered at UN Office at Nairobi, Kenya + It promotes socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities with the goal of providing adequate shelter for all + It is also a member of UNDP + It focuses on seven areas: Urban Legislation, Land and Governance; Urban Planning and Design; Urban Economy; Urban Basic Services; Housing and Slum Upgrading; Risk Reduction and Rehabilitation; Urban Research and Capacity Development + World cities report is published by UN-HABITAT. [UPSC 2017]
Q 9. With reference to the role of UN Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General
Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate
shelter for all
2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only
3. UN-Habitat contributes to the
overall objective of the United
Nations system to reduce poverty
and to promote access to safe
drinking water and basic sanitation
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
39. Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) [UPSC 2016]
• Sustainable development Goals (SDGs) is an intergovernmental agreement formulated to act as post 2015 Development agenda, its predecessor being Millennium Development Goals.
• It is a group of 17 goals with 169 targets and 304 indicators, as proposed by the United Nation General Assembly’s Open Working Group on Sustainable Development Goalsto be achieved by 2030.
• SDGs is the outcome of Rio+20 conference (2012) held in Rio De Janerio and is a non binding document.
Q 10. Consider the following statements:
1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the
‘Club of Rome’
2. The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
40. Birdlife International [UPSC 2015]
• It was founded in 1922 as International Council for Bird Preservation; changed its name to “Birdlife International” in 1993.
• It is a global partnership of conservation organizations that strives to conserve birds, their habitats working with people towards sustainability in the use of natural resources.
• It is the world’s largest partnership of conservation organizations, with over 120 partner organizations.
• Its global office is in Cambridge, UK with 6 regional offices – Africa, the Americas, Asia, Europe and Central Asia, the Middle East and the Pacific.
• World Birdwatch -> It is a quarterly magazine which contains recent news and authoritative articles about birds, their habitats, and their conservation around the world.
• It is the official Red List authority for birds, for IUCN.
• Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA) programme aims to identify, monitor and protect a global network of IBAs for conservation of world’s birds and other wildlife.
Q 5. With reference to an organization known as ‘Birdlife International’ which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a Global Partnership of
Conservation Organizations
2. The concept of ‘biodiversity
hotspots’ originated from this
organization
3. It identifies the sites
known/referred to as ‘Important
Bird and Biodiversity Areas’
4. Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
CHAPTER 8: INSTITUTIONS & ORGANISATIONS - INDIA PRELIMS PYQ CONTENT – UPSC CSE EXAM – Topic-wise Segregated
1. National Green Tribunal [UPSC 2018] • NGT Act, 2010: Provided for establishment of a NGT for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environment protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property.
• Mandate: Speedy environment justice, help reduce burden of litigation in higher courts + Disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same.
• Branches: Principle Bench in New Delhi + Regional benches in Pune, Bhopal, Chennai and Kolkata.
• Structure of NGT: The Tribunal comprises of the Chairperson, the Judicial Members and Expert Members; term of five years and are not eligible for reappointment + The Chairperson is appointed by the Central Government in consultation with CJI + A Selection Committee shall be formed by central government to appoint the Judicial Members and Expert Members + There are to be least 10 and maximum 20 full time Judicial members and Expert Members in the tribunal.
• Members: Chairperson of NGT is a retired judge of the SC + Other judicial members are retired judge of the High courts.
• Each Bench-> At least 1 judicial member and one expert member; expert members should have professional qualification and a minimum of 15yrs of experience in field of environment/ forest conservation.
• The NGT deals with civil cases under the seven laws related to the environment, these include:
o The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
Q 9. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?
1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been
created by an executive order of the government
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts
whereas the CPCB promotes
cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in
the country
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
o The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977
o The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 o The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
o The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
o The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 and
o The Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
• Note: NGT has not been vested with powers to hear cases relating to Wildlife protection act, 1972, Indian Forest act, 1927 and various laws enacted by states relating to forests, tree preservation etc.
• NGT by an order, can provide: Relief and compensation to the victims of pollution and other environmental damage including accident occurring while handling any hazardous substance + For restitution of property damaged, and for restitution of the environment for such area or areas, as the Tribunal may think fit.
• The NGT Act also provides a procedure for a penalty for noncompliance: Imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years, Fine which may extend to ten crore rupees, and Both fine and imprisonment.
• Principles: Not guided by Code of Civil procedure, 1908 but guided by Principles of natural justice + It is also not bound by Indian Evidence act, 1872.
• Review appeal can be made to NGT + If review appeal fails, NGT order can be challenged before Supreme court within ninety days.
• Others: India became the third country in the world to set up a specialised environmental tribunal, after Australia and New Zealand, and first developing country to do so.
2. Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) [UPSC 2018]
• It is a statutory body constituted under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974; entrusted with the powers and functions under Air
(Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
• It serves as field formation and provide technical services to MoEF&CC of provisions of EPA,1986; coordinates activities of SPCBs.
• Functions of the CPCB: They are spelt out in the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981,
o to promote cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the States by
prevention, control and abatement of
water pollution, and
o to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution
in the country.
3. Central Water commission [UPSC 2022] • It is a premier technical Organization of India in the field of Water Resources and is presently functioning as an attached office of the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation, GoI.
• Functions
o General responsibilities of initiating, coordinating and furthering in
consultation of the State Governments
concerned, schemes for control,
conservation and utilization of water
resources throughout the country, for
purpose of Flood Control, Irrigation,
Navigation, Drinking Water Supply
and Water Power Development.
o It also undertakes the investigations, construction and execution of any
such schemes as required.
4. Central Ground water board
• It is a national apex organization with responsibility to carry out scientific surveys, exploration, monitoring of development, management and regulation
of country’s vast groundwater resources for irrigation, drinking, domestic and industrial needs.
• Established in 1954, CGWB functions under the Ministry of Water Resources.
14. Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment
(Protection) Act, 1986?
(a) Central Water Commission
(b) Central Ground Water Board
(c) Central Ground Water Authority
(d) National Water Development Agency
• Mandate:
o To Develop and disseminate technologies, and monitor and
implement national policies for the
Scientific and Sustainable
development and management of
India’s Ground Water Resources,
including their exploration,
assessment, conservation,
augmentation, protection from
pollution and distribution, based on
principles of economic and ecological
efficiency and equity.
5. Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA)
• It has been constituted by the Government under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act (EPA) of 1986, and it has the mandate to regulate and control development and management of water resources in the country.
• CGWA guidelines: It grants NOC to industries requiring ground water for mixed use i.e. industrial process and drinking & domestic purpose shall be granted only for such cases where adequate public water supply/ surface water source does not exist.
6. National Water Development agency (NWDA)
• NWDA is the agency of the Union Ministry of Water Resources.
• It was set up in July, 1982 as autonomous society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.
• It was established to carry out the water balance and other studies on a scientific and realistic basis for optimum utilisation of Water Resources of the Peninsular rivers system.
• In 1990, it was entrusted with the task of Himalayan Rivers Development Component of National Perspectives.
• It has been also entrusted to prepare feasibility reports of intra-State links as proposed by the States.
7. India Sanitation Coalition (ISC) [UPSC 2022]
• It was launched in June 2015, at FICCI-> enables and supports safe and sustainable sanitation by bringing multiple organizations on a common platform through a range of catalytic actions.
• These include supporting the unlocking of WASH financing with focus on the private sector, forging partnerships with allied organizations for leading the discourse on sustainable sanitation;
• Note: It is not funded by WHO.
13. Consider the following statements:
1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable
sanitation and is funded by the
Government of India and the World
Health Organisation.
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of
Housing and Urban Affairs in
Government of India and provides
innovative solutions to address the
challenges of Urban India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. Animal Welfare Board of India [UPSC 2014]
• It is a statutory advisory body established under Section 4 of Prevention of Cruelty to Animals act,1960.
• Advise GOI on animal welfare laws. • Provides grants to animal welfare organizations.
• Publications to raise awareness of various animal welfare issues.
• Rukmini Devi Arundale pioneered the setting of board with HQ’s at Chennai.
• The board consists of 28 members; term of office is 3 years.
9. National tiger conservation authority (NTCA) [UPSC 2014]: It is a statutory body constituted under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 + It was established in 2005 on recommendation of Tiger Task force to aid in implementation of measures for conservation of tiger + It comes under MoEF&CC + It cooperates with bodies such as CBI, WCCB by issuing alerts for any illegal poaching activities; administers Project Tiger and tiger reserves.
• Composition:
o Set up under the chairmanship of the minister for environment and
forests.
Q 14. Consider the following statements :
1. Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Environments (Protection) Act, 1986
2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body
3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister
Which if the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
o Eight experts having qualifications and experience in wildlife
conservation and welfare of people
including tribals, apart from 3 MPs
(two will be elected by Los Sabha and
one by Rajya Sabha).
• Objectives
o Providing statutory authority to Project Tiger so that compliance of its
directives become legal.
o Fostering accountability of Center State in management of tiger
reserves, by providing a basis for
MoU with States within our federal
structure.
o Providing for an oversight by Parliament.
o Addressing livelihood interests of local people in areas surrounding
tiger reserves.
• Powers and Functions of NTCA
o Provide central assistance to states under ongoing Project Tiger and for
activities based on tiger conservation
plan.
o Conducts every four years, the countrywide assessment of status of
tiger, co-predators, prey and habitat
using refined methodology approved
by Tiger task force.
o Approve the tiger conservation plan prepared by the State Government.
o To approve, co-ordinate research and monitoring on tiger, co
predators, prey habitat and their
evaluation.
o Evaluate and assess various aspects of sustainable ecology and disallow
any ecologically unsustainable land
use such as, mining, industry etc.
o To ensure critical support including scientific, information technology
and legal support for better
implementation of the tiger
conservation plan.
o No alteration in boundaries of a tiger reserve shall be made except on
a recommendation of the NTCA and
the approval of NBWL.
o No State Government shall de-notify a tiger reserve, except in public
interest with approval of NTCA and
the approval of the NBWL.
10. National Ganga River Basin Authority • Established in 2009 under Environment Protection Act, 1986).
• It is a financing, planning implementing, monitoring, coordinating authorities for Ganga under Jal Shakti Ministry.
• Transferred from Ministry of Environment and Forests to Ministry of Jal Shakti in 2014.
• PM is the Chairperson. In 2016, it was changed to National Ganga Council (NGC).
CHAPTER 9: ACTS AND POLICIES RELATED TO BIODIVERSITY PRELIMS PYQ CONTENT – UPSC CSE EXAM – Topic-wise Segregated
1. Wildlife (Protection) act, 1972
• Definition of wildlife: It include any animals, bees, butterflies, fish and moths; and aquatic or land vegetation which form part of any habitat.
• Jurisdiction: The act extends to whole of India. After enactment of Jammu & Kashmir Reorganization Act, 2019, Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 also became applicable to the Union territory of Jammu & Kashmir.
• Five types of protected areas: National parks, Wildlife sanctuaries, community reserves, conservation reserves and tiger reserves.
• Key provisions: Prohibition of hunting, protection and management of wildlife habitats, establishment of protected areas, management of zoos etc.
• Prohibition of Hunting
o Prohibition of hunting: It prohibits the hunting of any wild animal
specified in Schedules I, II, III and IV
of the act.
▪ Exception: A wild animal listed
under these schedules can be
hunted only after getting
permission from the Chief Wildlife
Warden of the state if it becomes
dangerous to human life or to
property or is disabled or suffering
from a disease that is beyond
recovery.
• Six schedules
o Schedule I and Part II of Schedule II: It provides for absolute protection-
> highest penalties.
o Schedule 3 and 4: The penalties for offences under these schedules are less
and these animals are protected.
o Schedule 5: Vermins includes animals which can be hunted. For instance,
common crow, mice and rats.
o Schedule 6: Plants which are prohibited from cultivation and
planting. These mainly include
Q 16. If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife
Protection Act,
1972, what is the implication?
(a) A licence is required to cultivate that plant
(b) Such a plant cannot be cultivated under any circumstances
(c) It is a Genetically Modified crop plant
(d) Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the ecosystem
medicinal plants such as Beddomes
cyad, Blue vanda, Kutch, Ladies
slippers orchids, pitcher plant, red
vanda. The hunting to the Enforcement
authorities have the power to
compound offences under this
Schedule (i.e. they impose fines on the
offenders). The schedule has been
added to include specified plants
species to be protected by Wildlife
(Protection) amendment act of 1991.
[UPSC 2020]
• Specified Plants
o Definition: The wildlife Protection Act defines "specified plant" as any
plant specified in Schedule VI.
o It further states that "Cultivation of specified plants without license
prohibited. - (1) no person shall
cultivate a specified plant except
under, and in accordance with a license
granted by the Chief Wildlife Warden
or any other officer authorized by the
State Government in this behalf; 2)
Every license granted under this
section shall specify the area in which
and the conditions, if any, subject to
which the licensee shall cultivate a
specified plant."
2. Gharial (Gravialis gangeticus), Indian Wild Ass (Equus hemionus khur) and Wild Buffalo (Bubalus bubalis) are all mentioned under Schedule I for the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 -> so they cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law. [UPSC 2017]
Q 7. According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?
1. Gharial
2. Indian wild ass
3. Wild Buffalo
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Indian Forest act, 1927 [UPSC 2019]
Q 18. Consider the following statements:
• Objective: To consolidate the then existing laws of forests and duties that can be levied on forest products.
• Reserved Forest: Notified by states on any forest land to which government has ownership rights.
• Protected Forest: The state government can declare any portion of protected forest as closed for a term not exceeding 30 years during which rights of private persons can be suspended.
• Village Forest: The State government may assign to any village community the rights of Government to any land which has been constituted as reserve forest.
• Powers to Central Government: It gives power to central government to regulate timber production and its transportation.
4. Indian Forest (Amendment) Bill 2018: It permits felling and transit of bamboo grown in non-forest areas. However, bamboo grown on forest lands would continue to be classified as a tree and would be guided by the existing legal restrictions.
5. Forest Rights act, 2006 [UPSC 2019]
• Objective: It provides for restitution
of deprived forest rights across
India, including both individual
rights to cultivated land in
forestland and community
resources over common property
resources.
• Nodal Agency: Ministry of Tribal
affairs
• National parks and sanctaries
included along with reserve forest,
protected forests for recognition of
rights.
• Definition of Minor Forest
produce: It includes all non-timber
forest produce of plant origin,
including bamboo, brush, wood,
stumps, tendu, kendu leaves etc.
• It gave tribals and other traditional
forest dwellers the “right of
ownership, access to collect, use and
dispose of minor forest produce,
which has been traditionally collected
within or outside village boundaries.”
• Four types of rights
o Title rights
▪ It gives Forest dwelling scheduled
tribes and other traditional forest
dwellers the right to ownership to
1. As per the recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest
dwellers have the right to fell the
bamboos grown on forest areas
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers
(Recognition of Forest Rights) Act,
2006, bamboo is a minor forest
produce
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers
(Recognition Forest Rights) Act,
2006 allows ownership of minor
forest produce to forest dwellers
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
land farmed by tribals or forest
dwellers subject to a maximum of 4
hectares.
▪ Ownership is restricted for land that
is actually being cultivated by the
concerned family and no new lands
will be granted.
o Use rights
▪ The rights of the dwellers extend to
extracting Minor Forest Produce,
grazing areas, to pastoralist routes,
etc.
o Relief and development rights
▪ To rehabilitation in case of illegal
eviction or forced displacement,
subject to restrictions for forest
protection.
o Forest management rights
▪ Right to protect, regenerate or
conserve or manage any community
forest resource which they have been
traditionally protecting and
conserving for sustainable use.
• Nature of rights: The rights under the act shall be heritable but not alienable
or transferrable.
• Competent authority: The Gram Sabha has been designated as
competent authority for initiating
process of determining the nature and
extent of individual or community forest
rights that may be given to forest
dwelling scheduled tribes.
6. Wildlife Protection in India [UPSC 2022] • Bombay High Court -> wild animals including tiger should be treated as "government property for all purposes" and any damage caused by them should be compensated by the Government.
• Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, does not discriminate between animals found in protected areas and outside. It provides for equal protection for wild animals irrespective of where they are found.
• Only if the wild animal becomes a danger to human life or is diseased or disabled beyond recovery can it be allowed to be captured or killed by the competent authority, the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State-> applicable to wild animals listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
17. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:
1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to
human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
CHAPTER 10: PLANT AND ANIMAL DIVERSITY
PRELIMS PYQ CONTENT – UPSC CSE EXAM – Topic-wise Segregated
1. Gucchi [UPSC 2022]
• Guchhi mushroom is a species of fungus in the family Morchellaceae of the Ascomycota.
• They are pale yellow in colour with large pits and ridges on the surface of the cap, raised on a large white stem.
• It is grown in the foothills of Himalayas in Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, and Jammu and Kashmir.
• They cannot be cultivated commercially and grow in conifer forests across temperature regions.
• They are rich in potassium, vitamin D, copper and several B-Vitamins.
7. With reference to “Gucchi”
sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements:
1. It is a fungus.
2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas.
3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of
north-eastern India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
2. Hedgehog: It is an insectivorous spiny (needle-like anatomical structure) mammal of the subfamily Erinaceidae. It curls his head and feet into his body and forms a ball to protect his soft, delicate underside. [UPSC 2021]
• IUCN Red List: Least Concern; Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule 4 + Found throughout parts of Europe, Asia, and Africa, and New Zealand. Three species found in India:
o Indian Long-eared: It is native to northern India and Pakistan; mainly follow their excellent sense of hearing for the hunt, as their eyesight is quite poor.
o Indian hedgehog: It is native to India and Pakistan. It mainly lives in sandy desert areas but can be found in other environments.
o Bare-bellied or Madras hedgehog: Called mul eli – mul meaning thorn in Tamil and eli meaning rat – or irmal eli aka cough rat; it is used as an ingredient in traditional medicine, or in household remedies for coughs and rheumatism.
3. Marmot: It belongs to the squirrel family (Sciuridae) within the order Rodentia + well suited for life in cold environments and have small fur covered ears, short, stocky legs, and strong claws for digging + Marmots are diurnal (active during the day) and are almost entirely vegetarian + They are found primarily in the continents of Europe, Asia
4. Consider the following animals 1. Hedgehog
2. Marmot
3. Pangolin
To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protect its/their vulnerable parts?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3
and North America + While digging burrows, marmots increase aeration in the soil which increases nutrient circulation and helps different plants to propagate + Threats include hunting for meat and fur + It whistles to warn the others in the area, after which it typically hides in a nearby rock pile until there is no more threat. Due to the absence of scales or spines, they do not roll up and protect their vulnerable parts. [UPSC 2021]
4. Pangolin: These are only mammals wholly-covered in scales and use them to protect themselves from predators in the wild. Upon seeing predator, it immediately curls into a tight ball and use their sharp-scaled tails to defend themselves. [UPSC 2021]
5. Indian Pangolin: Distributed across India except in the arid region, high Himalayas and the North-East. The species also occurs in Bangladesh, Pakistan, Nepal and Sri Lanka + IUCN Status: Endangered + Wildlife Protection Act,1972: under Schedule I.
6. Chinese Pangolin: Found in Northern India, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh and Myanmar, northern Indo China, through most of Taiwan, and Southern China + Major threats are poaching, susceptible species due to its food specialization, and stenophagy + IUCN Status: Critically Endangered + Wildlife Protection Act,1972: Under Schedule I.
7. Oyster: Oysters are natural filter feeders -> they eat by pumping large volumes of water through their body. Water is pumped through the oyster’s gills by beating of cilia. Plankton, algae become trapped in the mucus of the gills. From there these particles are transported to the oyster’s mouth and esophagus to be eaten, then to the stomach to be digested. [UPSC 2021]
8. Catfish: African catfish is a carnivorous species introduced in India without official sanction + They thrive well in the freshwater lakes, rivers, swamps and urban sewage systems + It feeds on living and dead animal matter, including fish + Despite a ban imposed in 2000, farming of catfish continues in India + To protect indigenous aquatic species inside the Periyar Tiger Reserve (PTR), members of tribal eco-development committee carried out a special drive to eradicate African catfish from the Periyar lake + African catfish is also invasive in Keoladeo National park.
9. Octopus: Octopuses are sea animals famous for their rounded bodies, bulging eyes, and eight long arms + They live in all the world’s oceans but are
7. Which one of the following is a filter feeder?
(a) Catfish
(b) Octopus
(c) Oyster
(d) Pelican
especially abundant in warm, tropical waters + Most octopuses stay along Oceans floor, although some species are pelagic, which means they live near the water’s surface.
10. Spot billed Pelican/Grey Pelican: It breeds in southern Asia from southern Iran across India east to Indonesia + It is a bird of large inland and coastal waters, especially large lakes + The breeding population of these pelican species is limited to India, Sri Lanka and Cambodia + IUCN status: Near Threatened + Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule IV (Hunting prohibited but the penalty for any violation is less compared to the first two schedules).
11. Asian Elephants
• Three subspecies: Indian, Sumatran and Sri Lankan.
• Indian subspecies has the widest range and accounts for the majority of the remaining elephants on the continent.
• Conservation Status: IUCN Red List: Endangered + Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I + CITES: Appendix I.
• The elephant herd is led by the oldest and largest female member. [UPSC 2020]
• They have longest-known gestational period of all mammals, lasting up to 680 days (22 months).
• Females between 14 - 45 years may give birth to calves approximately every four years with the mean interbirth intervals increasing to five years by age 52 and six years by age 60.
• Karnataka has the highest number of elephants (6,049), followed by Assam (5,719) and Kerala (3,054).
12. Elephant census, 2017 report: The total Asian Elephant population in India is estimated at 27,312 across 23 states (a decrease over 2012); birth rate indicates elephant population is increasing; geographical range has also increased
13. Project Elephant: It was launched by GOI in 1992 as a centrally sponsored scheme; implemented in 16 states such as Assam, Arunachal, Jharkhand etc. • Objectives: Assist states having free ranging
population of wild elephants, Protect elephants, their habitats and corridors, Addressing human elephant conflict issues, Improving welfare of captive animals
Q 7. With reference to Indian
elephants, consider the following statements:
1. The leader of an elephant group is a female
2. The maximum gestation
period can be 22 months
3. An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40
years only
4. Among the States in India, the highest elephant
population is in Kerala
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
14. Monitoring the Illegal Killing of Elephants (MIKE) programme: Launched in 2003, it is an international collaboration that tracks trends in information related to illegal killing of elephants from across Africa and Asia; currently 28 sites participating in the programme in Asia distributed across 13 countries.
15. Haathi Mere Saathi: It is a campaign launched by MoEFCC and WII to improve conservation of the elephant population; launched at E-8 ministerial meeting held in Delhi in 2011; envisions setting up of Gajah centres in elephant landscapes across the country to spread awareness and encourage people’s participation.
16. Ceylon frogmouth: It is a grey-brown nocturnal bird species found in the Western Ghats and Sri Lanka’s forested habitats + It has hooked bill with slit-like nostrils and a large head with eyes facing forward. [UPSC 2020]
17. Coppersmith barbet/crimson-breasted barbet/coppersmith: It is an Asian barbet with crimson forehead and throat, known for its metronomic call that sounds similar to a coppersmith striking metal with a hammer.
18. White-throated Redstart: It is a species of bird in the Muscicapidae family found in Bhutan, China, India, Myanmar, and Nepal.
19. Grey-Chinned Minivet: It is a species of bird in the Campephagidae family found in Bangladesh, Bhutan, Cambodia, China, India, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Nepal, Taiwan, Thailand and Vietnam + natural habitat is subtropical or tropical moist lowland forests.
Q 9. With reference to India’s
biodiversity, Ceylon Frogmouth, Coppersmith Barbet, Gray Chinned Minivet and White-throated Redstart are
(a) Birds
(b) Primates
(c) Reptiles
(d) Amphibians
20. Double-humped camel [UPSC 2019]
• The Bactrian camel (Camelus bactrianus) is a large, even-toed ungulate native to the steppes of Central Asia.
• It is native of Gobi Desert and found in cold desert areas across Mongolia, India (Ladakh), China, Kazakhsthan, Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan and parts of Afghanistan.
• It is not naturally found in India.
• They are used for transportation and patrolling by the Indian Army in eastern Ladakh's treacherous terrain.
21. One-Horned Rhinoceros [UPSC 2019]
• There are five species of rhino – white rhino (near threatened), black rhinos (Critically Endangered) in Africa, greater one-horned
Q 3. Consider the following
statements:
1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only
2. Double-humped camel is
naturally found in India only
3. One-horned rhinoceros is
naturally found in India only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(vulnerable), Javan and Sumatran rhino species in Asia. (Critically Endangered).
• Only the Great One-Horned Rhino is found in India
• One-horned rhino is naturally found in areas of Assam such as Kaziranga National Park, India and also in Chitwan National Park (CNP) of Nepal.
• The species is restricted to small habitats in Indo-Nepal terai and northern West Bengal and Assam.
• It is the largest of rhino species identified by a single black horn and a grey-brown hide with skin folds. They have knobby skin that appears to be armour-plated.
• Protection Status: IUCN Red List: Vulnerable; CITES : Appendix I; Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I.
22. Asiatic Lion
• Asiatic lions are cousins of the African lion; believed to have split away 100,000 years ago. • They are slightly smaller than African lions. • The most striking morphological character -> longitudinal fold of skin running along its belly. • Its range is restricted to the Gir National Park and environs in the Indian state of Gujarat.
• It is listed in Schedule I of Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972
• Categorized as Endangered in IUCN Red List and in Appendix I of CITES.
• The census is conducted once every five years. The first Lion Census was conducted by the Nawab of Junagadh in 1936; since 1965, the Forest Department has been regularly
conducting the Lion Census every five years.
23. Species [UPSC 2019]
• Herbivorous turtles: Green sea turtles eat seagrasses and algae, though juveniles feed on crabs, sponges, and jellyfish. Once mature, it is is strictly herbivorous.
• Herbivorous Fishes: Surgeonfish, parrotfish, Japanese angelfish, yellow bloth-rabbit fish are some examples of herbivorous fishes.
• Herbivorous marine mammals: Manatees and dugongs are the only herbivores among marine mammals.
• Viviparous snakes: Viviparous animals are those in which fertilization and embryo development occur inside the individual. Boa
Q 6. Consider the following
statements:
1. Some species of turtles are herbivores
2. Some species of fish are
herbivores.
3. Some species of marine
mammals are herbivores
4. Some species of snakes are viviparous
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
constrictors and green anacondas are major examples of viviparous snakes.
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
24. Himalayan Nettle [UPSC 2019]
• It is a fibre yielding plant in the Himalayan mountain range.
• It grows in alpine and hilly area at the altitude of 3000m from sea level. It abundantly grows in the forest, on the riverbank, and in humid habitat.
• It has become a good source of income, for people living in the Himalayan mountain range. • This fibre is bio-degradable and recyclable. • Khar community in Darchula district in far western Nepal produces fabrics from Himalayan nettle.
Q 19. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of [Based on Current Affairs 2018-19]
(a) anti-malarial drug
(b) biodiesel
(c) pulp for the paper industry
(d) textile fibre
25. Important Invasive species in India
• Prosopis Julifora/Angreji Babool: Native to Mexico, South America and become an invasive weed in Africa, Asia and Australia + It is anaggressive colonizer distributed throughout the country + It is awater-greedy plant that depletes ground water + It is one of the world’s top 100 least wanted plants + It is also affecting wild ass population in Kutch, Gujarat + It is also used to erect fences. [UPSC 2018]
• Black Mimosa:It is a woody invasive shrub originates from tropical America + It is now widespread throughout tropics + It forms dense, thorny, impenetrable thickets in wet areas + It isdistributed throughout India + It is abundant especially in still or slow floating waters.
• Partheniumhysterophorus (Carrot Grass): Annual herb native to American Tropics + It is invasive species in India + It is also known as Congress grass or GajarGhans + It produces allelopathic chemicals that suppress crop and pasture lands that affects humans and livestock.
• Lantana Camara: Also known as red sage and tickberry + It is native to American tropics + It outcompetes more desirable species + It spread from native Central and South America to 50 different countries.
• Siam weed: Common invasive species of kerala, locally known as Communist pacha as it spread all over the state within a short span of time just like Communism + Siam weed is native to South America.
Q 4. Why is a plant called Prosopis Juliflora often mentioned in the news?
(a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics
(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grow
(c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides
(d) None of the above
• Senna Spectabilis: Plant species of legume family + It is an invasive species in India caused threat to wildlife habitat in the Nilgiri Biosphere reserve.
• Needle Bush: Native to tropical south America + It is distributed throughout India + It is found occasional in thorny scrub and dry degraded forests.
26. Gharial (Gravialis gangeticus), Indian Wild Ass (Equus hemionus khur) and Wild Buffalo (Bubalus bubalis) are all mentioned under Schedule I for the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 -> so they cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law. [UPSC 2017]
Q 7. According to the Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?
1. Gharial
2. Indian wild ass
3. Wild Buffalo
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
27. Kharai camel [UPSC 2016]
• It is a unique breed of camels found only in Kachchh region of Gujarat.
• They have the special ability to survive on both, dry land and in the sea.
• It can swim up to 3kms into the sea in search of mangroves, its primary food.
• They can be domesticated- People consume its milk, while male calves are sold for economic returns.
• Threats: Heavy industrialisation (salt and cement factories) -> restricted the access of the Kharai camels to their mangroves, on which they are dependent for their food.
Q 2. What is/are unique about ‘Kharai Camel’, a breed found in India?
1. It is capable of swimming up to three kilometres in
seawater
2. It survives by grazing on
mangroves
3. It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
28. Red Sanders [UPSC 2016]
• It is an endemic tree species restricted to Eastern Ghats.
• It usually grows in rocky, degraded and fallow lands with Red Soil and hot and dry climate.
Q 5. With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, sometimes seen in the news,
consider the following statements:
1. It is a tree species found in a part of South India
• It occurs in the forest formation classified as “Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests”. • It is generally found at altitudes of 150 – 900 m.
• The threats include illicit felling for smuggling. • It is high in demand across Asia, particularly in China and Japan, for use in cosmetics and medicinal products as well as for making furniture, woodcraft and musical instruments. • It is listed in Appendix 2 under CITES & Schedule 2 under Wildlife protection act, 1972. • Categorized as Endangered under IUCN red list
2. It is one of the most
important trees in the
tropical rainforest areas of
South India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
29. Great Indian Hornbill/Great Pied Hornbill [UPSC 2016]
• These are found in three separate areas in South Asia; in the Western Ghats, the Himalayan foothills in Uttaranchal to south Nepal and Bhutan, and north-east India.
• They occur in primary evergreen and moist deciduous forest, mainly in lowland forest, but they can be found up to 2,000 meters in some areas.
• It is one of the larger members of the hornbill family.
• It is long lived, living for nearly 50 years in captivity
• State Bird of Kerala and Arunachal Pradesh. • IUCN status: Vulnerable
Q 11. In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the `Great Indian Hornbill’ in its natural habitat?
(a) Sand deserts of northwest India
(b) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Salt marshes of western Gujarat (d) Western Ghats
30. State Butterfly of Maharashtra: Blue Mormon [UPSC 2016]
• Papilio polymnestor, commonly known as Blue Mormon, has been declared as the state butterfly of Maharashtra.
• Maharashtra has become the first state to have State butterfly.
• It has velvet, black wings with bright blue spots • It is the largest butterfly in India after the Troides minos commonly known as the Southern Birdwing.
• It is only found in Sri Lanka, the western ghats of Maharashtra, South India and coastal belts of the country
• The population of Blue Mormons is not threatened. Although the Blue Mormons can be seen throughout the year, they occur more commonly in the monsoon or after it.
Q 12. Recently, for the first time in our country, which of the following States has declared a particular butterfly as ‘State Butterfly’? [Based on Current Affairs 2015-16]
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Karnataka
(d) Maharashtra
• The most number of Blue Mormons are found in Sri Lanka because the country has availability of the most number of food plants
• The butterfly is most common in evergreen forests; they usually like to sit on the Ixora flower species.
31. Dugong [UPSC 2015]
• The dugong is the only strictly marine herbivorous mammal, as all species of manatee use fresh water to some degree.
• Distribution: Marine National Park, Gulf of Kutch; Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park and Palk Strait; Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Caribbean Sea, Gulf of Mexico, the Amazon Basin, and West Africa.
• Feeding on sea grass, dugongs are found in sea grass beds, sheltered waters, lagoons and bays. • IUCN Status: Vulnerable
• Dugongs are under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, the punishment for its poaching is imprisonment.
• Threats are Hunting (meat and oil), habitat degradation, and fishing-related fatalities, red tide, coastal development.
Q 9. With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a herbivorous marine
animal
2. It is found along the entire coast of India
3. It is given legal protection under Schedule 1 of the
Wildlife (Protection) Act,
1972
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
32. Gangetic Dolphin [UPSC 2015]
• Popularly known as ‘Susu’ of rivers.
• Only live in freshwater and are essentially blind. • They are reliable indicator of the health of the entire river ecosystem.
• It is also National Aquatic Animal of India. • It can be found in the Ganges-Brahmaputra Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems of Nepal, India, and Bangladesh.
• In India, it covers seven states namely, Assam, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal.
• It prefers deep waters, in and around the confluence.
• Major threats to dolphins in India include overfishing in the habitat, pollution, infrastructure etc.
• Gangetic dolphins are one among the 21 species identified under the centrally sponsored scheme, “Development of Wildlife Habitat”.
• India’s national aquatic animal (declared in 2009).
• IUCN: Endangered.
Q 10. Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?
(a)Saltwater crocodile
(b) Olive ridley turtle
(c) Gangetic dolphin
(d) Gharial
• Schedule I of WPA,1972 & Appendix 1 of CITES.
• The Gangetic Dolphin is endemic to the Indian sub-continent and has a fairly extensive distribution range. It is found in the Ganga - Brahmaputra - Meghna and Karnaphuli- Sangu river systems of India and Bangladesh, while a few individuals survive in the Karnali, and the Sapta Kosi Rivers in Nepal.
• Being a mammal, the Ganges River dolphin cannot breathe in water and must surface every 30-120 seconds.
• It is one of four freshwater dolphin species in the world. The other three are: 'Baiji' in Yangtze River in China (Functionally extinct since 2006), 'Boto' in Amazon River, 'Bhulan' in Indus River in Pakistan.
33. Painted Stork [UPSC 2014]
• IUCN status-> Near Threatened.
• Wetlands of the plains of tropical Asia south of Himalayas in the Indian sub-continent and extending to South East Asia.
• Karnataka, TN and Andhra Pradesh.
• It is a large wader in the stork family.
• They are not migratory and only make short distance movements in some parts of their range in response to changes in weather or food availability or for breeding.
34. Common hill Myna
• IUCN status-> Least concern
• Listed in the Schedule I of wildlife (Protection) act, 1972
• State bird of Meghalaya and chattisgarh
• It is known for its ability to mimic noises including human speech.
• Habitat: Hill myna like areas where rainfall and humidity are both high. They prefer jungles, evergreen, and wet deciduous forests. They occurs in moist or semi-evergreen forest in lowlands, hills and mountains
• Range: Himalayan foothills up to about 2500 ft., also occur through Nepal, Sikkim, Bhutan and China, Indochina, Thailand, Malaysia, and the Philippines. India - Western Ghats , east and north-east (Arunachal Pradesh and the lower Himalayas)
35. Black necked crane
• IUCN Red List: Near Threatened
• CITES: Appendix I
Q 7. If you walk through the
countryside, you are likely to see some birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize the insects disturbed by their movement through grasses. Which of the following is /are such bird/birds?
1. Painted Stork
2. Common Myna
3. Black-necked Crane
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
• Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I
• Male is slightly bigger than female.
• The upper long neck, head, primary and secondary flight feathers and tail are completely black and body plumage is pale gray/whitish.
• The bird is revered by the community of Monpas as an embodiment of the sixth Dalai Lama (Tsangyang Gyatso).
• In Arunachal Pradesh, it is seen in Sangti valley in West Kameng district, Zemithang in Tawang district and Chug valley in Tawang district.
• The high altitude wetlands of the Tibetan plateau , Sichuan (China), and eastern Ladakh (India) are the main breeding ground of the species.
36. Neem Tree [UPSC 2014]
• Neem is a natural herb that comes from the neem tree, other names for which include Azadirachta indica and Indian lilac.
• Neem is known for its pesticidal and insecticidal properties; it has been patented by India for its use as biofertilizer, biopesticide and antifertility compound as contraceptive.
• Neem seeds are used in manufacture of biofuels, hospital detergents and pharmaceutical industry.
Q 16. With reference to Neem tree, consider the following statements:
1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the
proliferation of some species
of insects and mites
2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and
hospital detergents
3. Neem oil has applications in the pharmaceutical industry
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
37. M-STrIPES (Monitoring System For Tigers Intensive Protection and Ecological Status) o This app was developed by the National Tiger Conservation Authority and the
Wildlife Institute of India in 2010.
o M-STrIPES allows patrol teams to keep a better tab on suspicious activity while also
mapping the patrolling, location, routes and timings of forest officials.
o The App was also used in the All India-Tiger Estimation.
Q 13. The term M-STrIPES’ is
sometimes seen in news in the context of
(a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna (b) Maintenance of Tiger Reservoirs
(c) Indegenous Satellite Navigation System
(d) Security of National Highways
CHAPTER 11: MISCELLANEOUS
PRELIMS PYQ CONTENT – UPSC CSE EXAM – Topic-wise Segregated
1. Polyethylene terephthalate [UPSC 2022] • It is a strong, stiff synthetic fibre and resin and a member of the polyester family of polymers. • It is a clear, strong, and lightweight plastic that is widely used for packaging foods and beverages, especially convenience-sized soft drinks, juices and water. ‘
• It is also popular for packaging salad dressings, peanut butter, cooking oils, mouthwash, shampoo, liquid hand soap, window cleaner, even tennis balls.
• Maharashtra government has announced the ban on sale of alcohol in PET bottles.
• Polyethylene terephthalate is the most widely recycled plastic. For instance, PET bottles and containers are commonly melted down and spun into fibres for fibrefill or carpets.
• Polyethylene is not inert and is known to release additives and other degradation products into the environment throughout its lifetime.
8. With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements:
1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to
reinforce their properties.
2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic
beverage.
3. Bottles made of it can be
recycled into other products.
4. Articles made of it can be
easily disposed of by
incineration without causing
greenhouse gas emissions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
2. Miyawaki method [UPSC 2022]
• Miyawaki method, developed by a Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki after whom it is named, involves planting saplings in small areas, causing them to “fight” for resources and grow nearly 10 times quicker.
• Method of Afforestation + Miyawaki forests are tiny forests grown on small plots of land in 2 to 3 years and are self-sustaining, like a forest.
• Bombay Municipal Corporation (BMC) has been using the Miyawaki method to create tiny urban forests in the Metropolitan areas of Mumbai. Miyawaki is an afforestation method based on the work of Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki in the 1980s.
12. The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the:
(a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas
(d). Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces
(b) Development of gardens genetically modified flora using
(d) Creation of mini forests in urban areas
3. Magnetite particles: These are highly magnetic mineral form of iron and key constituent of air pollution and have potentially large impacts on the brain due to its unique combination of redox
6. Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems are generated as environmental pollutants from which of the following?
activity, surface charge and strongly magnetic behaviour. [UPSC 2021]
• Sources: Brakes of motor vehicles, Engines of motor vehicles, Microwave stoves within homes, Power plants, telephone lines, forest fires, wood -burning stoves and many high -
temperature industrial processes.
4. ITMO Researchers Develop New Method of Magnetite Nanoparticle Synthesis
• Magnetite nanoparticles: These are extremely miniscule particles consisting of iron and oxygen + Their properties differ from that of bigger pieces of the same material.
• Applications: Used to manufacture prototypes of memristor devices. These devices imitate synapses – the connections between neurons of the human brain + Production of healing
accelerating bindings + Treatment of neurocognitive diseases such as Alzheimer’s by restoring brain function.
1. Brakes of motor vehicles
2. Engines of motor vehicles
3. Microwave stoves within homes 4. Power plants
5. Telephone lines
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
5. Copper Smelting [UPSC 2021]
• It is the process through which the copper ore is purified through intense heating and melting to derive high quality copper or copper products.
• Carbon Monoxide is used in copper smelters to reduce copper oxide. But it is unlikely that a smelter will release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide in to the environment.
• Smelting produces by-products such as slag which may leach heavy metals such as arsenic, lead and mercury into groundwater.
• The smelting process releases sulphur dioxide as most of copper ores are Sulphur based.
6. Copper: It is a good conductor of electricity and is ductile in nature. It is used by the automobile and defense industries, and in the electrical industry for making wires, electric motors, transformers, and generators. India does not have rich reserves of copper; also lag in production of copper. India has low grade copper ore (less than 1% metal content). The major supply comes from the USA, Canada, Zimbabwe and Japan. Major copper ore deposits are located in the Singhbhum district (Jharkhand), Balaghat district (Madhya Pradesh), and Jhunjhunu and Alwar districts (Rajasthan).
13. Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants?
1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into the environment 2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into the environment
3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
7. Furnace oil [UPSC 2021]
• It is one of the cheapest fuels available for industrial use. It is a by-product of petroleum refineries. While processing the Crude oil, it is one of the products along with other petroleum fuels like HSD, Petrol etc.
• Uses of Furnace oil: As fuel for Power Generation in Diesel Generator sets, As fuel for Boilers/ Furnaces/ Air preheater/ Any other Heaters, Fuel for Bunkering and Fuel/ Feedstock in Fertilizer Plants.
• Emission of Sulphur: The oxides of sulphur emissions are a direct result of the sulphur content of the fuel oil + During the combustion process this fuel-bound sulphur is rapidly oxidised to sulphur dioxide (SO2) + It also contributes to the formation of secondary particulate matter (PM).
• Benefits of Furnace oil: Cheapest petroleum fuel available - gives most heat per litre at lowest cost; Readily stored - occupies half the space of coal for equivalent heat content; Easily handled, regulated and controlled; Less maintenance than coal-fired equipment; Less labor required than with coal, no stoking, ash removal or conveyors required; Less capital expenditure than equivalent coal plant; Clean operation - no fly ash or dust problems, easy smoke control.
14. With reference to furnace oil, consider the following statements:
1. It is a product of oil refineries
2. Some industries use it to generate power
3. Its use causes sulphur emissions into the environment
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
8. Major Types of BioFuels
Q 18. According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as
raw materials for the production of biofuels?
1. Cassava
2. Damaged wheat grains
3. Groundnut seeds
4. Horse gram
5. Rotten potatoes
6. Sugar beet
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
• Bioethanol: Derived from corn and sugarcane using fermentation process + it improves the combustion performance and lowers the emissions of carbon monoxide and sulphur oxide when mixed with petrol.
• Biodiesel: Derived from vegetable oils like soybean oil, vegetable waste oils, and animal fats by a biochemical process called “Transesterification.”
• Biogas: Produced by anaerobic decomposition of organic matter like sewage from animals and humans.
9. Cassava/Tapioca: Production in India is estimated to be 4.98 million tonnes. Tamil Nadu, followed by Kerala accounts for major amount of production + It has high starch content and ability to grow under low management conditions + Agricultural residues of cassava like peels, stems and leaves are the potential feedstock for 2G bioethanol production.
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
10. Social cost of carbon (SCC): It is an estimate, in dollars, of the economic damages that would result from emitting one additional ton of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere + It puts the effects of climate change into economic terms to help policymakers understand the economic impacts of decisions that would increase or decrease emissions + India’s country-level social cost of carbon emission was estimated to be the highest at $86 per tonne of CO2 + India is followed by the US ($48) and Saudi Arabia ($47). [UPSC 2020]
Q 19. Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’? It is a
measure, in monetary value, of the
(a) long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2, emissions in a given year
(b) requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels
(c) efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place
(d) contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth
11. Major Minerals: Major minerals are those specified in the schedule appended in the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act,1957. [UPSC 2020]
• Fuel Minerals: Coal, Lignite, Natural Gas, Petroleum (Crude).
• Metallic Minerals: Bauxite, Chromite, Copper Ore, Gold, Iron Ore, Lead (Concentrates), Zinc (Concentrates), Manganese Ore, Silver, Tin (Concentrates), Tungsten (Concentrates).
• Non-Metallic Minerals: Agate, Andalusite, Apatite, Asbestos, Ball Clay, Barytes, Calcite, Chalk, Clay, Corundum, Calcarious sand,
Q 21. Consider the following minerals:
1. Bentonite
2. Chromite
3. Kyanite
4. Sillimanite
In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major
minerals?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
Diamond, Diaspore, Dolomite, Kyanite, Laterite, Limestone, Limestone Kankar, Pyrophyllite, Phosphorite, Quartz, Quartzite, Fuchsite Quartzite, Silica Sand, Salt (Rock), Salt (Evaporated), Shale, Slate, Steatite, Sillimanite etc.
12. Minor Minerals: Minor Minerals are those specified in schedule appended in Minor Mineral concession rules and the common minor minerals are Limestone, Decorative stones etc.
• Bentonite, Boulder, Brick Earth, Building Stones, Chalcedony or Corundum, Fuller’s Earth, Gravel, Lime Stone, Dunite, Felspar, Fire Clay, Felsite, Flourite (Graded), Flourite (Concentrates), Ordinary Sand, Ordinary Earth, Pebbles or Kankar, Quartzite and Sand stone, Road Metal, Salt Petre etc.
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
13. Groundwater situation in India: India is the largest extractor of groundwater in the world - more than the USA and China put together + According to the Central Groundwater Board report (2017), nearly 40 per cent of the 700 districts in India have reported ‘critical’ or ‘overexploited’ groundwater levels + Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh are states where the magnitude of water problem is not just large, but also complex + Recent data shows that more than 90% of groundwater in India is used for irrigation in agriculture-> 230 billion metre cubes of groundwater pumped out each year for irrigating farm areas in India + As per the report ‘National Compilation on Dynamic Groundwater Resources of India, 2017’ of CGWA, 1186 units in various States (17%) have been categorized as ‘Over-Exploited’, 313 units (5%) are ‘Critical’, and 972 are semi-critical units (14%) + As per report of FAO, the countries with the largest extent of areas equipped for irrigation with groundwater, in absolute terms, are India (39 million ha), China (19 million ha) and the USA (17 million ha). [UPSC 2020]
Q 24. Consider the following
statements :
1. 36% of India’s districts are
classified as “overexploited” or
“critical” by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
2. CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act.
3. India has the largest area
under groundwater irrigation in
the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
14. Methane Hydrate [UPSC 2019]
• Methane hydrate is a crystalline solid that consists of a methane molecule surrounded by a cage of interlocking water molecules. Owing to melting of ice, global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
• Distribution: Methane hydrate is an "ice" that only occurs naturally in subsurface deposits
Q 9. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’?
1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas
from these deposits
where temperature and pressure conditions are favorable for its formation. Known as flammable ice, methane hydrates are found in permafrost regions of the arctic and on the seafloor at continental margins below 500 meters of depth.
• Oxidizes to CO2: A molecule of methane is oxidized to water and carbon dioxide within a decade or so, mainly by reaction with another trace gas, the hydroxyl radical OH-.
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic
Tundra and under the seafloor
3. Methane in the atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
15. Pesticides Ban in Agriculture
• The Pesticide Action Network (PAN) India has welcomed the draft order issued by the Centre banning 27 pesticides, which are already banned in several other countries, in the country.
• The list of pesticides, according to the draft order, proposed to be banned include 2,4-D, acephate, atrazine, benfuracarb, butachlor, captan, carbendazin, carbofuran, chlorpyriphos, deltamethrin, dicofol, dimethoate, dinocap, diuron, malathion, mancozeb, methimyl, monocrotophos, oxyfluorfen, pendimethalin, quninalphos, sulfosulfuron, thiodicarb, thiophante methyl, phorate thiram, zineb and ziram [UPSC 2019]
Q 11. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and
triazophos is viewed with
apprehension. These chemicals are used as
(a) pesticides in agriculture
(b) preservatives in processed foods (c) fruit-ripening agents
(d) moisturising agents in cosmetics
16. Agricultural Soils [UPSC 2019]
• Soil water holding capacity is the amount of water that a given soil can hold for crop use. • Plant residues that cover the soil surface protect
the soil from sealing and crusting by raindrop impact, which enhances rainwater infiltration and reduce runoff.
• Each 1% increase in soil organic matter helps soil hold 20,000 gallons more water per acre. • Sulphur is one of three nutrients that are cycled between the soil, plant matter and the atmosphere.
• Salinization occurs with excessive irrigation, because deposits of salts build up in the soil and can reach levels that are harmful to crops.
Q 13. Consider the following
statements:
1. Agricultural soils release
nitrogen oxides into the
environment
2. Cattle release ammonia into the environment
3. The poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds
into the environment
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
17. Hydrogen- enriched CNG (H-CNG) [UPSC 2019]
• Ministry of Road Transport and Highways has allowed use of H-CNG (18% mix of hydrogen) in CNG engines.
• The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) developed specifications (IS 17314:2019) of H-CNG for automotive purposes, as a fuel.
• It is a blend of hydrogen and CNG, the ideal hydrogen concentration being 18%.
• It can reduce the emission of carbon monoxide (CO) up to 70%, besides enabling up to 5% savings in fuel when compared to conventional fuels.
• Concern: Hydrogen is “highly volatile” and there is a possibility of rise in combustion temperature and risk.
• Delhi Government has tied up with IOCL to induct 50 HCNG buses on a trial basis. IOCL has plans to mix (18-20) % Hydrogen in these buses.
• Current cost of H2 is more than the cost of Natural Gas, which makes HCNG more expensive than CNG.
Q 20. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H CNG) as fuel [Based on Current Affairs 2018-19]
buses in public transport, consider the following statements:
1. The main advantage of the use of HCNG is the elimination of
carbon monoxide emissions
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon
emissions
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with
CNG as fuel for buses
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
18. Spread of Plant Diseases [UPSC 2018] • Nematodes, snails, birds, and wild and domestic animals often help dissemination of plant diseases.
• The spores of many parasitic fungi are disseminated by air currents from diseased to disease-free host Pathogens like, bacteria are often disseminated by splashing of raindrops, as in case of Citrus canker disease.
• Soil and field operation also disseminate the diseases as they result in dust blowing.
Q 8. Consider the following
1. Birds
2. Dust blowing
3. Rain
4. Wind blowing
Which of the above spread plant diseases?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
19. Consequences of fall in population of species of butterflies [UPSC 2017]
• Bees and butterflies play a vital role in the pollination of plants and the production of crops by transporting pollen grains from one place to another.
• They also act as a lower member of the food chain.
• A number of animals, including birds and mice feed on butterfly.
• As populations of butterfly diminish, so will populations of birds and other animals that rely on them as a food source.
• This loss of the butterfly is the beginning of the butterfly effect.
• These are some of the common predators of butterflies such as wasps, ants, parasitic flies, birds, snakes, toads, rats etc. The decline in butterfly population would adversely affect the food.
Q 3. Due to some reasons if there is a huge fall in the population of a species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences?
1. Pollination of some plants
could be adversely affected
2. There could be a drastic
increase in the fungal infection of some cultivated plants
3. It could lead to a fall in the
population of some species of
wasps, spiders and birds
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
20. Algae based biofuels [UPSC 2017]
• Algae fuel, algal biofuel is an alternative to liquid fossil fuels that uses algae as its source of energy rich oils.
• Algaculture can be initiated on land unsuitable for agriculture or saline water or wastewater.
• They can grow on marginal or non-crop land and also on brackish or polluted water.
• Developing and engineering ABB technology requires a high level of expertise until construction is finished, which may be a significant barrier in developing countries that have a weak investment climate.
Q 4. Is it possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry? 1. Production of algae based
biofuels is possible in seas
only and not on continents
2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel production requires high level of expertise/ technology until the
construction is completed
3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of a large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social
concerns
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
21. Hibernation [UPSC 2014]
• Hibernation is a state of inactivity and metabolic depression in endotherms.
• It refers to a season of heterothermy that is characterized by low body temperature, slow breathing and heart rate, and low metabolic rate. • It can be seen in bats, bears and rodents.
• True hibernators like ground squirrels awaken slowly. However, bears can awaken very easily during their denning period.
Q 5. Consider the following :
1. Bats
2. Bears
3. Rodents
The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in which of the above kinds of animals?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Hibernation cannot be observed in any of the above
22. Coalbed Methane [UPSC 2014]
• CBM is an unconventional natural gas that occurs in coal beds in adsorbed form during coalification process and is rich in methane content.
• With fifth-largest coal reserves in the world India has huge potential (Gondwana sediments of eastern India holding the bulk potential); CBM resources are estimated at 92 trillion cubic feet (TCF).
• Uses: It can be used for power generation, as CNG auto fuel, running internal combustion engines, as feedstock for fertilizers and as industrial uses such as in cement production, rolling mills, steel plants, and for methanol production.
23. Shale gas [UPSC 2014]
• It is natural gas formed from being trapped within shale formations.
• Unlike conventional hydrocarbons that can be extracted from the permeable rocks easily, shale gas is trapped under low permeable rocks.
• It is colourless, odourless gas, lighter than air. • It is cheaper than natural gas and releases 50% less CO2.
• Used as feedstock for petrochemicals industry, which is turned into fertilizer, plastics and other useful materials.
• Cambay, Gondwana, Krishna-Godavari and Cauvery Basins are potential sites.
• Extraction requires creation of fractures in oil and gas rich shale to release hydrocarbons through a process called hydraulic fracking/fracturing.
Q 11. With reference to two
nonconventional energy sources called ‘coalbed methane’ and ‘shale gas’, consider the following statements:
1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from
coal seams, while shale gas is
a mixture of propane and
butane only that can be
extracted from fine-grained
sedimentary rocks.
2. In India abundant coalbed
methane sources exist, but so
far no shale gas sources have
been found.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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