Click here to read the entire PDF to crack the 2022 OAS Prelim Current Affairs Code
Based on the Last Year's OAS Prelim Current Affairs Questions, it is clear that questions are nowadays becoming more current affairs oriented. But current affairs are like oceans, so it requires analysis of the past questions & the anticipation of the probable questions for the coming exam. Based on this the PDF has been written. Plz go through it, if you are writing the 2022 OAS Prelim Exam.
Here, there is a compilation of last OAS Prelim Current Affairs Question Analysis with Last 8 months(January 2023 to August 2023) Current Affairs Compilation.
PYQ OAS Prelim 2021
1. Who gave the call for an Evergreen Revolution?
A. Verghese Kurien
B. M. S. Swaminathan
C. Y. V. Reddy
D. Trivubandas Patel
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The correct answer is M. S. Swaminathan.
Key Points
'Evergreen Revolution' is related to Agriculture.
Dr. MS Swaminathan is at present chairman of the National Commission on Farmers. He gave the call for an “Evergreen Revolution” for doubling the present production levels of food grains.
The evergreen revolution refers to productivity improvement in perpetuity without ecological and social harm.
The evergreen revolution involves the integration of ecological principles in technology development and dissemination.
Green Revolution refers to the great increase in the production of food grains (such as rice and wheat) due to the introduction of high-yielding varieties, the use of pesticides, and better management techniques.
The green revolution was launched to achieve self-sufficiency in food grains. From the 1960s major changes were made to traditional agricultural practices. More land was brought under irrigation.
Cooperative farming and farm mechanization was introduced in North India, especially in Punjab, Haryana, and Western UP.
Usage of fertilizers, pesticides, high – yielding varieties of seeds was done. Additional Information
Verghese Kurien:
Verghese Kurien was born on 26 November 1921 at Calicut, Madras Presidency (now Kozhikode, Kerala).
He was an Indian social entrepreneur who is known as the Father of the White Revolution in India for his Operation Flood.
Operation Flood, launched in 1970 is a project of the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB), and was started by Dr Verghese Kurien.
Y. V. Reddy:
Yaga Venugopal Reddy is an Indian economist and a retired Indian Administrative Service officer of the 1964 batch belonging to the Andhra Pradesh cadre.
Reddy served as governor of the Reserve Bank of India, India's central bank, from September 2003 until September 2008.
Trivubandas Patel:
Tribhuvandas Kishibhai Patel was a freedom fighter.
Tribhuvandas became a follower of Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel during the Indian independence movement and especially the civil disobedience movements. Tribhuvandas Patel was awarded the 1963 Ramon Magsaysay Award for 'Community Leadership', together with Dara Nusserwanji Khurody, and Verghese Kurien., and the Padma Bhushan from the Govt. of India in 1964.
2. Which state in India has been declared the first organic farming state?
A. Odisha
B. Punjab
C. Sikkim
D. Kerala
The correct answer is Sikkim.
Key Points
Sikkim became the first totally organic state in 2016, with the goal of protecting the environment, its delicate ecosystem, and rich biodiversity, as well as offering a healthier lifestyle for its residents.
The declaration was the culmination of a process that started in 2003, the year when it stopped imports of chemical fertilizers into the State.
The state won the prestigious Future Policy Gold Award from the UN Food and Agriculture (FAO), after beating 51 nominations from around the world.
Additional Information
Organic farming is a type of agriculture that uses pesticides made from organic manure and animal or plant waste.
Chemical pesticides and synthetic fertilizers were causing environmental harm, thus this farming began as a response.
Sikkim
It is part of the Eastern Himalayas and is known for its biodiversity, which includes alpine and subtropical climates, as well as being home to Kangchenjunga, India's highest peak and the world's third-highest peak.
Gangtok is the capital and largest city in Sikkim.
Cardamom and ginger are the cash crops of Sikkim.
Sikkim is the second-largest cardamom producer state in India after Kerala. The highest lakes in India are Gurudrongmar Lake and Cho Lhamo Lake, both in Sikkim. Sikkim, which makes up 0.5 percent of India's landmass, has 84 glaciers, the largest number compared to any other state or union territory.
Only after Darjeeling, West Bengal, Sikkim has the Highest number of Gurkhas residing in the state and probably in the world.
Dalle Khorsani, from Sikkim, is known to be one of the world's hottest chilies.
3. As per World Economic Forum's Global Gender Gap Report, 2022 India's rank out of 146 countries is:
A. 123
B. 135
C. 117
D. 120
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The correct answer is 135.
Key Points
Global Gender Gap Report, 2022
India ranks 135 among a total of 146 countries in the Global Gender Gap Index 2022. Hence option 2 is correct.
It is the worst performer in the world in the “health and survival” sub-index where it is ranked 146.
The Global Gender Gap Report was first published in 2006 by the World Economic Forum. The Global Gender Gap (GGG) Index is an index designed to measure gender equality. It is the longest-standing index, which tracks progress towards closing these gaps over time since its inception in 2006.
It measures gender parity in four important areas or sub-indices -
Political Empowerment
Health & Survival
Educational Attainment
Economic Involvement & Opportunity
On each of the four sub-indices as well as on the overall index the GGG index provides scores between 0 and 1.
Where 1 shows full gender parity and 0 is complete imparity.
Additional InformationGlobal Gender Gap Index
Aim:
To serve as a compass to track progress on relative gaps between women and men on health, education, economy, and politics.
Other major reports published by the World Economic Forum are:
Global Risks Report
Chief Economists Outlook
Global Travel and Tourism Report
Energy Transition Index
Global Competitiveness Report
4. For which age group, the Unique Identification Authority of India has issued the Blue colored Bal Adhaar Card?
A. For children up to 5 years of age
B. For children up to 6 years of age
C. For children up to 7 years of age
D. For children up to 8 years of age
The correct answer is For children up to 5 years of age.
Key Points
Blue Aadhar
The Unique Identification Authority of India has introduced Blue Aadhar, also referred to as Baal Aadhaar.
When giving the Aadhaar number to children under the age of five, it is printed in blue lettering. Hence option 1 is correct.
When a child reaches the age of five, their blue Aadhaar card expires.
A child below the age of 5 years does not have to register their biometrics. However, once the child turns 5 years one has to update the Aadhaar data and then again at the age of 15 years.
This mandatory biometric update for children is free.
Additional Information
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Unique Identification Authority of India
It is a statutory body.
It was established under the Aadhar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies Benefits and Services) Act, 2016 which is also known as the Aadhar Act 2016. It works under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
Before its establishment as a statutory body, it was working as an attached body under Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog).
5. Name of the country which announced to change their capital due to sea level rise: A. Indonesia
B. Maldives
C. Vietnam
D. Philippines
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The correct answer is - Indonesia
Key Points
Indonesia
Indonesia relocated its capital from Jakarta to Borneo island which will be named "Nusantara". The reason behind this is Jakarta is sinking.
The northern part of Jakarta that meets the Java sea has been sinking 25 centimeters a year and it is affecting the 10 million people living in the city.
Jakarta does not have access to clean overground water.
Instead, it depends on drilled borewells to extract groundwater for its population. But as the city became overcrowded, the number of pumps increased.
As more water was sucked out of the ground, the land above began to drop. This, in addition to a rise in sea level because of climate change, accelerated the rate at which the city is shrinking.
By relocating the capital, the government also hopes to redistribute wealth.
Additional Information
Capital Cities:
Maldives - Male
Vietnam - Hanoi
Philippines - Manila
6. According to the latest reports which city was World's Most Polluted City in 2021?
A. Ghaziabad
B. Bhiwadi
C. Hotan
D. Delhi
The correct answer is Bhiwadi
Key Points
World Air Quality Report, 2021
The 2021 World Air Quality Report presents an overview of the state of global air quality in 2021.
The report is based on PM 2.5 air quality data from 6,475 cities in 117 countries, regions, and territories around the world.
According to the latest reports, Bhiwandi was World's Most Polluted City in 2021, with an average PM2.5 concentration of 106.2 micrograms per cubic meter of air (μg/m³). Hence option 2 is correct.
Bhiwadi is currently 8.4 times the WHO annual air quality guideline value. Six of the world's 10 most polluted cities are in India.
Additional Information
Ranking 2021
Rank City Country PM 2.5
1 Bhiwandi India 106.2
2 Ghaziabad India 102
3 Hotan China 101.5
4 Delhi India 96.4
5 Jaunpur India 95.3
7. According to the World Air Quality Report 2021, which of the following is the most polluted capital city in the world?
A. Beijing
B. Dhaka
C. Islamabad
D. Delhi
The correct answer is Delhi.
Key Points
Sixty-three of the world's 100 most polluted cities are in India, according to the World Air Quality Report 2021, prepared by Swiss organization IQAir, released on 22 March. Delhi remains the most polluted capital city in the world for the fourth consecutive year. The report is based on PM2.5 data from 6,475 cities in 117 countries worldwide. Additional Information
Central and South Asia have some of the worst air quality and were home to 46 of the world's 50 most polluted cities in 2021.
Bhiwadi in Rajasthan's Alwar is the most polluted regional city, with an average PM2.5 concentration of 106.2 micrograms per cubic meter, followed by Uttar Pradesh’s Ghaziabad. The report mentioned that the cleanest air measured in India is in Ariyalur, Tamil Nadu, but even that is thrice the WHO's safe levels.
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8. International Day for the Conservation of the Mangrove Ecosystem celebrated on which day?
A. 26 July
B. 2 June
C. 21 March
D. 2 February
The correct answer is 26 July
Key Points
To raise awareness of the importance of mangrove ecosystems celebrated International Day for the Conservation of the Mangrove Ecosystem.
International Day for the Conservation of the Mangrove Ecosystem is observed every year on July 26. Hence option 1 is correct.
In India, the mangrove forest is found in States like West Bengal, Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, and Andhra Pradesh.
While the Sundarban mangrove forests are the largest mangroves in the world. Additional Information
Tamil Nadu’s Pichavaram mangrove forests are the second largest in the world. Mangrove soils are an effective carbon sink due to their capability to bury and preserve carbon within anoxic sediment conditions caused by frequent tidal inundation.
According to the Forest Survey Report 2021, the total mangrove cover in the country is 4,992 sq km.
An increase of 17 sq Km in mangrove cover has been observed as compared to the previous assessment of 2019.
The top three states showing mangrove cover increase are Odisha (8 sq km) followed by Maharashtra (4 sq km) and Karnataka (3 sq km)
9. Which of the following are the key features of ‘The National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA)’?
(i) River basin is the unit of planning and management.
(ii) It spearheads river conservation efforts at the national level.
(iii) One of the Chief Ministers of the States through which the Ganga flows becomes the Chairman of NGRBA on a rotation basis.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. (i) and (ii) only
B. (ii) and (iii) only
C. (i) and (iii) only
D. All of these
The correct answer is (i) and (ii) only.
Key Points
National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA)
National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) has started the Mission Clean Ganga. It aimed at championing the challenges posed to Ganga through four different sectors, namely, wastewater management, solid waste management, industrial pollution, and riverfront development.
The Ministry of Jal Shakti is the nodal Ministry for the NGRBA (National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA).
The NGRBA is chaired by the Prime Minister and has as its members the Union Ministers concerned, and the Chief Ministers of the States through which Ganga flows, i.e. Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, and West Bengal, among others. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
The river basin is the unit of planning and management, an internationally accepted strategy for the integrated management of rivers. Hence statement 1 is correct.
National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) will spearhead river conservation efforts at the national level and implementation will be by the State Agencies and Urban Local Bodies. Hence statement 2 is correct.
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10. Name the new tool that is aimed at matching potential volunteers to new clinical trials:
A. Country without COVID
B. A world with less COVID
C. Goal without COVID
D. World without COVID
The correct answer is World without COVID
Key Points
A new public health tool dubbed World Without COVID was launched with the aim of connecting patients to coronavirus clinical trials across the country.
On March 11, 2020, the World Health Organization (WHO) declared COVID-19 a global pandemic.
Shortly after, launched World Without COVID (WWC)
World Without COVID (WWC) became a new tool that is aimed at matching potential volunteers to new clinical trials. Hence option 4 is correct.
The goal of this global public health initiative was to connect COVID-positive and –negative individuals with clinical trials for diagnosis, treatment, and vaccine discovery. WWC initiative provided a platform that enabled individuals with the power to play a vital role in developing potential new treatment options for an entire community of patients. In addition, the initiative linked individuals to blood donation centers to coordinate donations to enable urgently-needed convalescent plasma treatments.
To reach this large number of participants, the WWC database listed more than 400 COVID-19 clinical trials, including all U.S. interventional studies and most international trials.
Additional Information
Other initiatives are taken at the global level during covid-19
COVAX Facility - a global initiative that brings together governments and manufacturers to ensure eventual COVID-19 vaccines reach those in greatest need(link is external) UNDP and Hackster.io COVID-19 - Detect & Protect Challenge
Global COVID-Zero initiative - filling $8bn shortfall for coronavirus response, To cover a global funding shortfall for vaccines, treatments, and testing for coronavirus.
11. The world's first floating nuclear plant was developed by which of the following country?
A. Russia
B. India
C. China
D. USA
The correct answer is Russia.
Key Points
Russia has launched the world's first floating nuclear power station, Akademik Lomonosov. The 21,500-tonne ship was named after Academician Mikhail Lomonosov. Additional Information
It is named after 18th-century Russian scientist Mikhail Lomonosov.
Recently it completed its epic 5000 km Arctic voyage in 22 days, despite environmentalists warning of serious risks to the region.
It was launched by Russia on 19 May 2018 at the St Petersburg Shipyard. Akademik Lomonosov has painted with the signature red, white, and blue colors of the nation's flag on its exterior.
12. Unicorn' is the name of which space body that was recently discovered at 1,500 light-years away from the Earth?
A. Exo-plant
B. Black hole
C. Asteroid
D. Satellite
The correct answer is Black hole.
Key Points
Scientists have found an object so intriguing that they gave it the nickname "the Unicorn". It may be the tiniest black hole known to exist and the one that is nearest to our solar system in the Milky Way galaxy.
It is 1,500 light years away from the earth which nearest of all black holes discovered so far. The researchers said the black hole is roughly three times the mass of our sun. The unicorn appears to be traveling with a red massive star. By observing the fluctuations in the red giant star, the researchers were able to find the unicorn.
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Additional Information
This is due to the fact that black holes are typically invisible. Tidal Distortion, an effect, was used to find the black hole.
The gravitational interaction of an astronomical body causes tidal distortion. For instance, on no moon and full moon days, there is a greater tidal distortion between the Earth and the moon.
A body is stretched along a line in the direction of another body's mass center by the tidal forces.
13. What is Patania II, which was seen in the news recently, for being stranded on the Pacific Ocean floor?
A. Container Ship
B. Submarine
C. Mining Robot
D. Satellite module
The correct answer is Mining Robot.
Key Points
Patania - II is a Mining robot stranded on the Pacific Ocean floor in a deep-sea mining trial. Global Sea Mineral Resources (GSR), the deep-sea exploratory division of dredging company DEME Group, has been testing Patania II, a 25-tonne mining robot prototype, in its concession in the Clarion Clipperton Zone since 20 April 2021.
Independent researchers from 29 European institutes are observing the GSR study and analyzing the data and samples the robot obtained to gauge the effects of seabed mining. The International Seabed Authority, a U.N. entity, has contracts with many firms and nations for seabed exploration, but the regulations governing deep-sea mining have not yet been finalized.
14. Which company has acquired the Signal-rival messaging application Wickr?
A. Google
B. Amazon
C. Microsoft
D. Apple
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The correct answer is Amazon
Key Points
The Amazon subsidiary, Amazon Web Services (AWS) has acquired a messaging application Wickr v. Hence option 2 is correct
This acquisition will help Amazon develop platforms for the military, security-conscious firms, and government agencies.
Amazon Web Services (AWS) offers security-conscious enterprises and government agencies the ability to implement important governance and security controls.
AWS Wickr is an end-to-end encrypted enterprise communication service that allows secure collaboration across messaging, voice and video calling, file sharing, and screen sharing.
Additional Information
Wickr is a free app that provides military-grade encryption of text, picture, audio, and video messages.
It helps organizations protect their collaboration with a secure and compliant solution. Senders control who can read their messages and how long their messages will live for. Encrypted messages are stored on our servers and are deleted after they are downloaded by the recipient's devices.
The messaging application Wickr was founded in 2012.
Wickr is considered a rival to the Signal platform, as it boasts strong encryption.
15. With reference to CHOGM Foreign Ministers Plenary-2022, consider the following statements:
(i) CHOGM Foreign Ministers' Plenary was held in Jamaica.
(ii) The theme of the Plenary is ‘Democracy, Peace and Governance'.
(iii) It was attended by Dr. S. Jaishankar from India.
(iv) This meeting is held every year.
Which of the above statements is correct?
A. (i), (ii) and (iv)
B. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
C. (i), (iii) and (iv)
D. (ii) and (iii)
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The correct answer is (ii) and (iii).
Key Points
The CHOGM Foreign Ministers' Plenary, with the theme "Democracy, Peace, and Governance," was held in Rwanda. Hence statement (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct.
Dr. S. Jaishankar stressed the need for India's digital infrastructure during the plenary. Hence statement (iii) is correct.
He emphasized the importance of working together to handle today's major issues, like climate change, ongoing global conflicts, and post-COVID recovery.
It is a biannual summit gathering of all Commonwealth countries' de facto leaders. Hence statement (iv) is incorrect.
However, particularly in semi-presidential states, the head of state may attend a meeting instead of the head of government.
Every two years, a meeting is held in a different member state.
The appropriate Prime Minister or President of the Country presides over the meeting. The Commonwealth Chair-in-Office is the Prime Minister of the President till the following CHOGM.
Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM)
It is a biennial (every two years) summit meeting of the heads of government from all Commonwealth nations.
Every two years the meeting is held in a different member state and is chaired by that nation’s respective Prime Minister or President who becomes the Commonwealth Chair-in-Office until the next meeting.
The first CHOGM was held in 1971
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16. Which two of the following statements are not correct?
(i) National Investigation Agency is the primary counter-terrorist task force in India. (ii) It was established on November 30, 2006.
(iii) It does take permission from the respective States to investigate.
(iv) It has its branches in Lucknow and Kolkata.
A. (ii) and (iii)
B. (iii) and (iv)
C. (i) and (iv)
D. (i) and (iii)
The correct answer is (ii) and (iii).
Key Points
The National Investigation Agency (NIA) is the Central Counter-Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency of India mandated to investigate all the offenses affecting the sovereignty, security, and integrity of India. Hence statement (i) is correct.
It includes:
Friendly relations with foreign states.
Against atomic and nuclear facilities.
Smuggling of arms, drugs, and fake Indian currency and infiltration from across the borders. The offenses under the statutory laws enacted to implement international treaties, agreements, conventions, and resolutions of the United Nations, its agencies, and other international organizations.
It was constituted under the National Investigation Agency (NIA) Act, 2008. Hence, statement (ii) is not correct.
The agency is empowered to deal with the investigation of terror-related crimes across states without special permission from the states under a written proclamation from the Ministry of Home Affairs. Hence, statement (iii) is not correct.
It was established in the wake of the 26/11 Mumbai terror attack in November 2008, which shocked the entire world, the then United Progressive Alliance government decided to establish the NIA.
The agency came into existence on 31st December 2008 and started its functioning in 2009. NIA is headquartered in New Delhi.
NIA has branches in Hyderabad, Guwahati, Kochi, Lucknow, Mumbai, Kolkata, Raipur, Jammu, Chandigarh, Ranchi, Chennai, and Imphal. Hence statement (iv) is correct. The founding Director-General of NIA was Radha Vinod Raju
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17. Which of the following statements is correct in respect of India's GSAT-24 Satellite launching?
(i) It is a 24 Ku Band Communication Satellite.
(ii) It was launched from Kourou Space Centre in French Guiana.
(iii) This will provide coverage to Pan India.
(iv) It is launched by ISRO's powerful Rocket GSLV Mk lll.
A. (i), (ii), and (iv)
B. (i), (ii), and (iii)
C. (ii), (iii), and (iv)
D. All are correct
The correct answer is (i), (ii), and (iii).
Key Points
Following the space reforms, NewSpace India Limited (NSIL) launched GSAT-24 while leasing Tata Play, a Direct-to-Home (DTH) service provider, the full satellite's capacity. The business's initial "demand-driven" communication satellite mission was this one. The satellite was successfully launched into geostationary orbit by the Ariane 5 rocket from Kourou in French Guiana, developed by the Indian Space Research Organization for NSIL (South America). Hence statement (ii) is correct and statement (iv) is incorrect. GSAT-24 is a 24-Ku band communication satellite weighing 4180 kg with pan-India coverage for meeting DTH application needs. Hence statements (i) and (iii) are correct. NSIL, the commercial branch of ISRO, became a Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) under the Department of Space in March 2019.
In accordance with this paradigm, NSIL is in charge of creating, launching, owning, and managing satellites in addition to offering services to its loyal client.
GSAT-24 is set up for a 15-year mission life on ISRO's tried-and-true I-3k Bus.
18. The SEBI has set up an Advisory Committee on Hybrid Securities. Regarding Hybrid Securities which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
(i) Hybrid Securities are securities that have a combination of Debt and Equity characters. (ii) Common Stock was the first type of hybrid security.
(iii) The holders of common stock receive dividends before the holders of preferred stocks. (iv) Hybrid Securities are a way for Banks/companies to borrow money from investors.
A. (ii) and (iv)
B. (i) and (iii)
C. (i) and (iv)
D. (ii) and (iii)
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The correct answer is (i) and (iv).
Key Points
Hybrid securities are a broad group of securities that combine the characteristics of the two broader groups of securities, debt, and equity. Hence statement (i) is correct. These are defined under Section 2 (19A) of the Companies Act, 1956.
Until a specific date, hybrid securities pay a consistent (either fixed or adjustable) rate of return or dividend; after that time, the holder has a variety of options, including converting the securities into the underlying share.
Thus, in contrast to a share of stock (equity), the holder benefits from a fixed (as opposed to residual) cash flow, and in contrast to a fixed interest security (debt), the holder has the opportunity to convert the security to the underlying equity.
The preferred stock was the first type of hybrid security offered in the marketplace. Hence statement (ii) is incorrect.
Preference shares, more commonly referred to as preferred stock, are shares of a company’s stock with dividends that are paid out to shareholders before common stock dividends are issued. If the company enters bankruptcy, preferred stockholders are entitled to be paid from company assets before common stockholders. Hence statement (iii) is incorrect. Hybrid securities are a way for banks and companies to borrow money from investors. Hence statement (iv) is correct.
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Additional Information
SEBI has set up an advisory committee on hybrid securities, which will make recommendations for giving a fillip to the growth of such instruments, including measures focusing on ease of issuance and attracting domestic and global capital.
The 20-member committee will be chaired by K V Kamath, Chairperson of the National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development.
In addition, the committee comprises top-level officials of infrastructure investment trusts (InvITs), real estate investment trusts (REITs), finance as well as legal experts and representatives of SEBI.
REITs and InvITs are classified as hybrid securities and they are relatively new investment instruments in the Indian context but are extremely popular in global markets. The committee has been given the task of advising Sebi on issues related to the development and regulation of primary and secondary markets of hybrid securities in the country. REIT comprises a portfolio of commercial real assets, a major portion of which is already leased out, InvITs comprise a portfolio of infrastructure assets, such as highways and power transmission assets.
Besides, Sebi has reconstituted its research advisory committee, which is responsible for the promotion, development, and maintenance of databases relevant to capital market regulation research.
The 16-member panel will be headed by V Ravi Anshuman, Professor at IIM Bangalore.
19. Which of the following statements is not correct in respect of 'One Nation One Ration Card' (ONORC)?
(i) This Scheme has become operational in the entire India.
(ii) Assam became the 34th State to adopt ONORC.
(iii) This move has made food security portable.
(iv) Ration Cards are nationalized using voter identity card seeding.
A. (i) and (iii)
B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (iii) and (iv)
D. (ii) and (iv)
The correct answer is (ii) and (iv).
Key Points
Assam has become the 36th State/UT to implement the One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC). Hence statement (ii) is incorrect.
With this, the ONORC program has been successfully implemented in all states and Union Territories, making food security portable throughout the country. Hence statements (i) and (iii) are correct.
The ONORC scheme is being implemented under National Food Security Act (NFSA). This system allows all NFSA beneficiaries, particularly migrant beneficiaries, to claim either full or part foodgrains from any Fair Price Shop (FPS) in the country through existing ration card with biometric/Aadhaar authentication in a seamless manner. Hence statement (iv) is incorrect. The system also allows their family members back home, if any, to claim the balance of foodgrains on same the ration card.
The implementation of ONORC was initiated in August 2019.
20. According to Asia's Global Start-Up Ecosystem Report released on June 14, 2022, which Indian State ranked First position in Asia?
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Kerala
The correct answer is Kerala.
Key Points
Kerala has been ranked first in Asia in the Global Startup Ecosystem Report (GSER). In 2020, Kerala was ranked in 5th position in Asia.
Global Startup Ecosystem Report (GSER).
Asia's Global Start-Up Ecosystem Report (GSER) has been released to bring together global governments and corporate leaders, inspirational start-up founders, and investors to discuss the power of technology for societies.
This ranking has been decided jointly by policy advisory and research organization Start-up Genome and Global Entrepreneurship Network.
This report includes a ranking of the leading 140 ecosystems, continental insights, and founder-focussed articles from thought-leading experts.
Top Asian emerging ecosystems were measured on the basis of talent, experience, long-term trends over the most significant performance factors, and the ability to generate and keep talent in the ecosystem.
The first ever GSER was published in 2020.
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21. In respect of the BRICS-22 Summit held in virtual mode, which of the following statements are correct?
(i) The meeting's topic is ‘Foster High-Quality BRICS partnership, usher in a New era for Global Development.
(ii) Vladimir Putin said that Russia is ready to promote close and versatile interaction with BRICS partners.
(iii) Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi said, members should understand the security concerns of each other and provide mutual support.
(iv) Chinese President Xi Jinping welcomed expanding military ties among BRICS.
A. (i), (ii) and (iii)
B. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
C. (i), (iii) and (iv)
D. All of these
The correct answer is All of these.
Key Points
14th BRICS Summit, convened under the Chairmanship of President Xi Jinping of China on 23-24 June 2022, in a virtual format.
President Jair Bolsonaro of Brazil, President Vladimir Putin of Russia, and President Cyril Ramaphosa of South Africa also participated in the Summit on 23 June.
The High-level Dialogue on Global Development, the non-BRICS engagement segment of the Summit, was held on 24 June. Hence statement (i) is correct.
On 23 June, the leaders held discussions in the fields of Counter-Terrorism, Trade, Health, Traditional Medicine, Environment, Science, Technology & Innovation, Agriculture, Technical and Vocational Education & Training, and also key issues in the global context, including the
reform of the multilateral system, COVID-19 pandemic, global economic recovery, amongst others.
Prime Minister called for the strengthening of the BRICS Identity and proposed the establishment of an Online Database for BRICS documents, BRICS Railways Research Network, and strengthening cooperation between MSMEs.
India will be organizing a BRICS Startup event this year to strengthen connections between Startups in BRICS countries.
Prime Minister also noted that as BRICS members we should understand the security concerns of each other and provide mutual support in the designation of terrorists and this sensitive issue should not be politicized. Hence statement (iii) is correct.
At the conclusion of the Summit, BRICS Leaders adopted the ‘Beijing Declaration. President Vladimir Putin of Russia quoted "The countries that form this group has been seeking to step up their cooperation on all global and regional matters". Hence statement (ii) is correct. President Vladimir Putin of Russia quoted "Some countries attempt to expand military alliances to seek absolute security, stoke bloc-based confrontation by coercing other countries into picking sides and pursue unilateral dominance at the expense of other’s rights and interests.
Chinese President Xi Jinping warned against "expanding" military in a speech ahead of a virtual summit with top leaders from Russia, India, Brazil, and South Africa " Hence statement (iv) is incorrect.
22. In respect of 'EX-KHAAN QUEST-2022' which of the following statements is correct? (i) It is a Multinational Peace Keeping Exercise.
(ii) It was conducted from March 6, to March 20, 2022.
(iii) It was held in Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia.
(iv) Indian contingent was represented by personnel from Kashmir Scouts.
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (i) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iii)
The correct answer is (i) and (iii).
Key Points
The Multinational Peacekeeping Exercise “Ex Khaan Quest -2022” culminated at the Peace Support Operations Training Centre in Ulaanbaatar Mongolia. Hence statements (i) and (iii) are correct.
The exercise conducted from 06 June to 20 June 2022 provided a platform for mutual learning and sharing best practices amongst the armies from 16 Nations. Hence statement (ii) is incorrect.
The Indian contingent consisting of personnel from the LADAKH SCOUTS participated in the field training as well as the Command Post exercise. Hence statement (iv) is incorrect. A number of training activities were organized during the course of the exercise, which included mock tactical operations as per the United Nations (UN) mandate
combat discussions
training of staff & command appointments; as part of a combined UN brigade, in order to enhance multinational interoperability.
The bonhomie, esprit-de-corps, and goodwill generated during the exercise will go a long way in the future strengthening of bonds between the Armies of participating Nations.
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23. The International Day of Yoga is observed every June 21. Which of the following statements about the International Day of Yoga is not correct?
(i) The observation of the International Day of Yoga started from the year 2016.
(ii) The idea to have an UN-mandated day for celebrating Yoga was put forward by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
(iii) This Day was incepted in UN General Assembly in 2015.
(iv) June 21 was selected as Yoga Day because it is the longest day of the year in the Southern Hemisphere.
A. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
B. (i), (iii) and (iv)
C. (i), (ii) and (iv)
D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
The correct answer is (i), (iii) and (iv).
Key Points
(i) The observation of the International Day of Yoga started from the year 2016.
On June 21, 2015, the world celebrated the first International Day of Yoga. Hence statement (i) is incorrect.
In India, the Ministry of AYUSH made the necessary arrangements. 35,985 people, including Prime Minister Modi and dignitaries from 84 countries, performed 21 asanas (yoga postures) for 35 minutes at Rajpath in New Delhi, making it the largest yoga class ever held and with the most countries participating 84.
(ii) The idea to have an UN-mandated day for celebrating Yoga was put forward by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
India proposed the draught resolution establishing the International Day of Yoga, which was approved by a record 175 member states. Prime Minister Narendra Modi first mentioned the proposal in his speech at the start of the 69th session of the General Assembly. Hence statement (ii) is correct.
(iii) This Day was incepted in UN General Assembly in 2015.
Recognizing its universal appeal, the United Nations declared 21 June as the International Day of Yoga by resolution 69/131 on 11 December 2014. Hence statement (iii) is incorrect. The International Day of Yoga aims to raise global awareness of the numerous benefits of yoga practice.
(iv) June 21 was selected as Yoga Day because it is the longest day of the year in the Southern Hemisphere.
June 21 was selected as Yoga Day because it is the longest day of the year in the Northern Hemisphere. Hence statement (iv) is incorrect
24. An innovative project called 'The National Initiative for Promoting Up-skilling of Nirman Workers (NIPUN) was launched in June 2022. Relating to this which of the following statements is correct?
(i) This initiative was launched for the skill training of 1 lakh construction workers.
(ii) It was launched under the flagship of Scheme of the Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme.
(iii) This Scheme will provide work opportunities to them in foreign countries also. (iv) This Scheme will be implemented by National Skill Development Corporation.
A. (i), (iii) and (iv)
B. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
C. (i), (ii) and (iii)
D. (i), (ii) and (iv)
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The correct answer is (i), (iii) and (iv)
Key Points
The project NIPUN is an initiative of the Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs (MoHUA) under its flagship scheme of the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Urban Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NULM) Hence statement (iii) is incorrect.
It is to train over 1 lakh construction workers, through fresh skilling and upskilling programmes and provides them with work opportunities in foreign countries also. Hence statement (i) and (iii) are correct.
DAY-NULM is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, being implemented since 2014-15, with the aim to reduce poverty and vulnerability of urban poor households in the country by enabling them to access self-employment and skilled wage employment opportunities, resulting in an appreciable improvement in their livelihoods on a sustainable basis.
The National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC), the nodal agency under the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE), Government of India, will be the Implementation Partner for the project NIPUN. Hence statement (iv) is correct.
Additional Information
Project NIPUN will also facilitate and support convergence with related line ministries. Meanwhile, NSDC will be responsible for the overall execution of training, monitoring, and candidate tracking.
It will provide trainees with ‘Kaushal Bima’, a three-year accidental insurance with coverage of INR 2 lakhs, digital skills such as cashless transactions and the BHIM app, orientation about entrepreneurship, and EPF and BOCW facilities.
A project committee with members from both NSDC and MoHUA will be formed under the chairmanship of the Additional Secretary-cum-Mission Director, DAY-NULM to oversee and monitor the project.
The construction industry is poised to become the largest employer by 2022 and needs 45 million additional skilled workers over the next 10 years.
To fulfill this mission, the National Real Estate Development Council (NAREDCO) and the Confederation of Real Estate Developers' Associations of India (CREDAI) have joined Project NIPUN as industry partners and will identify training job roles of aspirational value in the construction sector in collaboration with the SSC.
25. Pick up wrong matching in respect of New Chief Justices of High Courts appointed recently:
A. Justice Vipin Sanghi - Uttarakhand
B. Justice Ujjal Bhuyan - Telangana
C. Justice Satish Chandra Sharma - Rajasthan
D. Justice Rashmin Manharbhai Chhaya - Guwahati
The correct answer is - Option 3
Incumbent Chief Justice of J&K High Court, Justice Pankaj Mithal was transferred to the Rajasthan High Court, Hence option 3rd is incorrect.
Justice Vipin Sanghi was appointed as the Chief Justice, of the High Court of Uttarakhand and assumed charge in 2022.
Justice Ujjal Bhuyan is the Chief Justice of Telangana High Court. He has also served as Judge of Telangana High.
Justice Rashmin Manharbhai Chhaya, Presently, he is Chief Justice of Gauhati High Court. He is a former Judge of Gujarat High Court.
Additional Information
Articles 214 to 231 in Part VI of the Constitution deal with the high courts in the states There are 25 High Courts in India, six having control over more than one State/UT. Each High Court shall consist of a Chief Justice and such other judges as appointed by the President of India.
26. PM eVIDYA program was launched by the Ministry of Education in May 2020. Which of the following major initiatives of the program are not correct?
(i) DISHA (One Nation and Multi Digital Platforms)
(ii) Swayam Prabha TV Channel (One Class-One Channel)
(iii) Special e-content for visually and hearing impaired
(iv) Extensive partnership with parents' associations in school management
A. (i) and (iv)
B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (iii) and (iv)
D. (i) and (iii)
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The correct answer is (i) and (iv).
Key Points
(i) DISHA (One Nation and Multi Digital Platforms)
PM e-VIDYA is a comprehensive initiative that unifies all efforts related to digital/online/on-air education to enable multi-mode access to education. This will benefit nearly 25 million school-aged children throughout the country.
DIKSHA portal is launched under PM e-VIDYA. It is a One Nation One Digital Platform. Hence (i) is incorrect.
DIKSHA - The MHRD-created Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing (DIKSHA) portal and mobile app is a repository for a large number of eBooks and e-Contents created by States/UTs and National level organizations.
(ii) Swayam Prabha TV Channel (One Class-One Channel)
DTH SWAYAM PRABHA channels These channels are available via the DD, Dish TV, and Jio TV apps.
Under this PM eVIDYA program, one class One TV channel program will be launched. Hence (ii) is correct.
It is proposed to have 12 dedicated television channels, one for each class from 1 to 12. (iii) Special e-content for the visually and hearing impaired
The DIKSHA platform now has audiobooks for the visually impaired and an ISL dictionary for the hearing impaired. Hence (iii) is correct.
Furthermore, the National Institute of Open Schooling is dedicated to making its website accessible to people with disabilities.
In an effort to make the website more accessible, NIOS has included various features that will make it easier for users to navigate the website.
(iv) Extensive partnership with parent's associations in school management.
There is no such provision regarding this in PM e-VIDYA. Hence (iv) is incorrect. Other features of PM e-VIDYA are
SWAYAM - SWAYAM is a program launched by the Government of India to achieve the three cardinal principles of Education Policy.
The Department of Higher Education has set up online learning for competitive exams such as IITPAL and E-Abhyas. IITPal, also known as IIT Professor Assisted Learning, is a series of lectures prepared by IIT Professors to assist students in their preparation for the Joint Entrance Exam (JEE) and NEET.
Radio will be used specifically for children who live in remote areas and do not have access to the Internet. Radio channels will benefit greatly from activity-based learning.
27. In which district of Gujarat India’s First-ever Girl Panchayat called ‘Balika Panchayat’ was started?
A. Kutch
B. Bharuch
C. Navsari
D. Ahmedabad
Key Points
Balika Panchayats, a first for the nation, have begun in five villages in the Kutch area of Gujarat. The project aims to assure the girls' active engagement in politics and to advance their social and political growth.
In the villages of Kunaria, Maska, Motagua, and Vadsar in the Kutch district, the Panchayat has begun. Hence option 1) is correct.
The Women and Child Development Welfare Department of the Gujarat Government launched this project as part of the "Beti Bachao Beti Padhao" campaign.
In addition, the country-wide implementation of the girl panchayat is being planned by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
Balika Panchayat is governed by those between the ages of 11 and 21, and its main goals are to advance the social and political advancement of girls and eradicate harmful societal customs like child marriage and the dowry system.
Similar to Gram Panchayat, Balika Panchayat nominates its members
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28. The Khuvsgul Lake National Park of Mongolia has been added to the World Network of Biosphere Reserves by UNESCO. In respect of this which of the following statements is correct?
(i) This decision was taken during the 36th Session of the International Co-ordinating Council of Man and Biosphere Programme.
(ii) This program was held in Paris in June 2022.
(iii) The Biosphere Network was launched by UNESCO in 1971.
(iv) The First Biosphere Reserve of the World was established in 1979.
A. (i) and (iii)
B. (ii) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (iii) and (iv)
The correct answer is (ii) and (iv).
Key Points
Mangolia's Khuvsul Lake National Park has been included in UNESCO's World Network of Biosphere Reserves.
The choice was chosen during the Man and the Biosphere Programme's International Co-ordinating Council's 34th session, which was held in Paris, France. Hence statement (ii) is correct and statement (i) is incorrect.
Nearly 70% of Mongolia's fresh water, or 0.4% of the world's total, is contained in the Khuvsgul Lake, which is situated in the northern Mongolian region of Khuvsgul close to the Russian border.
Khuvsgul Lake Biosphere Reserve, Mongolia
Ecological Characteristics:
The natural formations are steep mountains, rocky cliffs, and deep dense taiga with abundant rivers and swamps, hence there are encompassing vast areas that are untouched and uninhabited by humans.
The vicinity of Khuvsgul Lake consists of various distinctive natural zones such as tundra, sub-tundra, taiga forest, forest-steppe, and mountain-steppe that are home to a variety of unique species that reflect the features of the region.
Socio-Economic Characteristics
People with Uriankhai and Buryat ethnic backgrounds rely on animal husbandry and livestock by selling their dairy products at the market and tourist camps, selling their handicrafts, and providing horse-riding services during the tourist season.
Additional Information
The first biosphere reserve in the world was established in 1979. Hence statement (iv) is correct.
Since then the network of biosphere reserves has increased to 631 in 119 countries across the world.
The Biosphere Network was created in 1987, it is currently the largest MAB Regional Network with 53 countries. Hence statement (iii) is incorrect
29. The Reserve Bank of India released its vision on the 'Architecture of Digital Finance' in a document for Payment Systems on July 17, 2022. In respect of this, which of the following statements is not correct?
(i) This is called the Payment Vision 2025 document.
(ii) This document includes Bigtechs and Finetechs in payments.
(iii) It includes introducing Bitcoin currency.
(iv) It delinks Credit Cards with the Unified Payments Interface.
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (iii) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
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The correct answer is (iii) and (iv).
Key Points
(i) This is called the Payment Vision 2025 document.
On July 17, 2022, the Reserve Bank of India published its vision for 'Architecture of Digital Finance' in a document for Payment Systems. This is known as the Payment Vision 2025 document. Hence (i) is correct.
The core theme of the Payments Vision 2025 is 'E-Payments for Everyone, Everywhere, Everytime' (4Es).
It aims to provide every user with safe, secure, fast, convenient, accessible, and affordable e-payment options.
(ii) This document includes Bigtechs and Finetechs in payments.
BigTechs and FinTechs play a vital role in onboarding new users and personalizing payment experiences.
Given their increasingly dominant role in the payments ecosystem, the Reserve Bank will publish a discussion paper on the need for proportionate regulation encompassing domestic incorporation, reporting, data use, and so on. Hence (ii) is correct.
(iii) It includes introducing Bitcoin currency.
According to this document, Bitcoin currency is not introduced. Hence statement (iii) is incorrect. (iv) It delinks Credit Cards with the Unified Payments Interface.
UPI transactions have grown at the expense of other retail payments, particularly card transactions. The convenience and seamless experience it provides users are one of the reasons for its popularity.
At the moment, a UPI user can only link his or her bank account (savings or current account) and debit card to the UPI Virtual Payment Address (VPA).
The feasibility of linking credit cards and credit components of banking products to UPI will be investigated to provide more avenues and greater convenience to users when making payments through the UPI platform. Hence statement (iv) is incorrect.
30. The Henderson Brooks - Bhagat report, and the Arun Nehru report respectively pertain to (identify the correct option):
A. The Sino - Indian relations after independence, and the reforms needed in the management of the Indian armed forces
B. Reforms needed in India's foreign relations, and reforms in Center-State relations C. Indo - Pak relations, and Indo-Sri Lanka relations
D. Sino - Indian engagement of 1962, and reforms needed in the management of Indian armed forces
The correct answer is Sino - Indian engagement of 1962, and the reforms needed in the management of Indian armed forces.
Key Points
The Henderson Brooks - Bhagat report
The Henderson Brooks-Bhagat report is the report of an investigative commission that conducted an Operations Review of the Indian Army's operations during the Sino-Indian War of 1962.
General J. N. Chaudhuri, the Acting Army Chief at the time, commissioned it. Lieutenant-General T.B. Henderson Brooks and Brigadier Premindra Singh Bhagat, a Victoria Cross winner and former Director of Military Intelligence, wrote it.
Despite widespread demand, the Indian government refused to make the contents of this report public.
According to reports, the Report directly blamed Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru for the blunder. Investigation - The operation of the Army Headquarters, as well as civilian command of the army, fell outside the purview of the commission. The commission had access to directives issued to lower levels of the army command, but these did not include information about political directions issued by civilian authorities.
Arun Nehru report
The Arun Nehru report was about the need for reforms in the management of the Indian armed forces.
Arun Nehru, the president of Jenson and Nicholson for 17 years, entered politics in 1984 at the request of then-Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
He was a Janata Dal leader who served in the 9th Lok Sabha from Bilhaur. He previously served in the 7th and 8th Lok Sabhas from Rae Bareli on an Indian National Congress ticket. He was also a member of several committees, including the Railway Convention Committee (1980-84), the Consultative Committee on External Affairs, and the Science and Technology Committee of the 7th Lok Sabha (1987–89)
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OAS Prelim CURRENT AFFAIRS OF JANUARY 2023
Defense
The inaugural edition of the bilateral air exercise between the Indian Air Force (IAF) and Japan Air Self Defence Force (JASDF) held in Japan's Hyakuri air base from 12 to 26 January 2023 was named – Veer Guardian 2023
The biennial Tri-Services Amphibious exercise conducted at Kakinada (A.P.) from 17 to 22 January 23 was named – AMPHEX 2023
The first-ever joint exercise between the special forces of the Indian Army and the Egyptian Army held from 14 January 2023 in Jaisalmer is named – Exercise Cyclone-I
The 21st edition bilateral naval exercise held between the navies of India and France from 16 to 21 January 23 on the Western Seaboard is named – Exercise Varuna
List of exercises between India and France: Army- SHAKTI; Navy -VARUNA; Air Force- GARUDA.
Persons
The former Minister of Law and Justice (1977 to 79) and advocate of the Supreme Court, who passed away on 31 January 2023 – Shri Shanti Bhushan
The Minister of Health and Family Welfare of Odisha who was shot dead by a police sub-inspector on 29 January 2023 – Shri Naba Kishore Das
The first Indian architect to win the Pritzker Architecture Prize (2018) and also the recipient of Padma Shri and Padma Bhushan who passed away on 24 January 2023 – Dr. Balkrishna Vithaldas Joshi
The renowned Assamese poet winner of the Jnanpith Award for 2020 who passed away on 19 January 2023 – Shri Nilamani Phookan
The world's oldest person, a French nun aged 118 years, who passed away on 17 January 2023 – Ms. Lucile Randon
The contestant from the USA who has been crowned Miss Universe 2022 at the beauty pageant held in New Orleans, Louisiana – Ms. R'Bonney Gabriel
The former Union Minister, seven times Member of Parliament, and leader of Rashtriya Janata Dal who passed away on 12 January 23 – Shri Sharad Yadav
The former President of Brazil (from 2003 to 2011) and member of the Workers' Party who has taken over as the 39th President of Brazil – Mr. Luiz Inácio Lula da Silva
Places
The venue of the India International Science Festival, IISF-2022 held from 21 to 24 January 2023 with the theme Marching towards Amrit Kaal with Science Technology and Innovation – Bhopal
The district of Kerala which has become India's first constitution-literate district as announced by the Chief Minister Shri P. Vijayan – Kollam
The state has restored the old pension scheme to all its present employees who are covered under the NPS – Himachal Pradesh
The venue of the 26th National Youth Festival held from 12 to 16 January 2023 with the theme Viksit Yuva, Viksit Bharat – Hubbali (Karnataka)
The venue of the 17th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas Convention held from 08-10 January 2023 with the theme Diaspora: Reliable partners for India’s progress in Amrit Kaal – Indore
The place in Odisha where a new stadium named Birsa Munda International Hockey Stadium was inaugurated by its CM Shri Naveen Patnaik – Rourkela
The place in Kerala at which the world's first palm-leaf manuscript museum was inaugurated by the Kerala CM Shri P Vijayan – Thiruvananthapuram
The state which has been awarded the UN World Habitat Awards 2023 for its world's largest land titling and slum upgrading program Jaga Mission – Odisha
The place on the border between Sudan and South Sudan, where India has deployed its single largest platoon of UN women peacekeepers – Abyei
The venue of the 1st All India Annual States' Ministers Conference on "Water Vision@2047" held from 05 to 06 January 2023 – Bhopal
The member of the European Union since 2013 which has adopted the EU currency from 01 Jan 2023 and become the 20th member of the Eurozone – Croatia
The venue of the 108th Indian Science Congress held from 3rd January to 07 January with the theme Science and Technology for Sustainable Development with Women Empowerment – Rashtrasant Tukadoji Maharaj Nagpur University
Sports
The chess player from Tamil Nadu who has become the 79th Indian Grandmaster – M. Pranesh
The bowler from the Saurashtra team who has made a new Ranji Trophy record of becoming the first bowler to take a hat-trick in the opening over – Jaydev Unadkat
The chess player from West Bengal who has become the 78th Indian Grandmaster – Koustav Chatterjee
Govt Schemes
The name given to the new integrated food security scheme for providing free foodgrains to Antodaya Ann Yojna (AAY) & Primary Household (PHH) beneficiaries, rolled out from 1st January 2023 – Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Ann Yojana (PMGKAY)
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What is PM-GKAY?
PMGKAY is a part of the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package (PMGKP) to help the poor fight the battle against Covid-19.
The scheme aimed at providing each person covered under the National Food Security Act 2013 with an additional 5 kg of grains (wheat or rice) for free, in addition to the 5 kg of subsidized food grain already provided through the Public Distribution System (PDS).
It was initially announced for three months (April, May, and June 2020), covering 80 crore ration cardholders. Later it was extended till September 2022.
Its nodal Ministry is the Ministry of Finance.
The benefit of the free ration can be availed through portability by any migrant labor or beneficiary under the One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC) plan from nearly 5 lakh ration shops across the country.
What is the National Green Hydrogen Mission?
Why in News?
The Union Government has approved a Rs 19,744 crore National Green Hydrogen mission that aims to make India a ‘global hub’ for using, producing, and exporting green hydrogen.
About:
It is a program to incentivize the commercial production of green hydrogen and make India a net exporter of fuel.
The Mission will facilitate demand creation, production, utilization, and export of Green Hydrogen.
Sub Schemes:
Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition Programme (SIGHT):
It will fund the domestic manufacturing of electrolyzers and produce green hydrogen.
Green Hydrogen Hubs:
States and regions capable of supporting large-scale production and/or utilization of hydrogen will be identified and developed as Green Hydrogen Hubs.
Objective:
Develop a green hydrogen production capacity of at least 5 MMT (Million Metric Tonne) per annum, alongside adding renewable energy capacity of about 125 GW (gigawatt) in India by 2030.
It aims to entail over Rs 8 lakh crore of total investments and is expected to generate six lakh jobs.
It will also lead to a cumulative reduction in fossil fuel imports by over Rs 1 lakh crore and an abatement of nearly 50 MT of annual greenhouse gas emissions.
Nodal Ministry:
Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
Significance:
It will help entail the decarbonization of the industrial, mobility, and energy sectors; reducing dependence on imported fossil fuels and feedstock; developing indigenous manufacturing capabilities; creating employment opportunities; and developing new technologies such as efficient fuel cells.
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EAT RIGHT STATION
Context: Indian Railways’ Varanasi Cantt Railway Station has been awarded a 5-star ‘Eat Right Station’ certification for providing high-quality, nutritious food to passengers.
• The ‘Eat Right Station’ certification is awarded by FSSAI to railway stations that set benchmarks in providing safe and wholesome food to passengers.
• The apex food regulatory body comes under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
• It has 240 parameters concerning food storage and hygiene, based on which the certification is accredited.
• They are also rated on a scale of one to five–five being the highest level of compliance with the standards and regulations in place.
• India has so far 34 ‹Eat Right› certified stations, including Bhopal and Varanasi Cantt.
NATIONAL ASSESSMENT REGULATOR:
PARAKH Context: National Council for Education Research and Training (NCERT) has notified India’s first national assessment regulator, PARAKH
About PARAKH:
PARAKH has been launched as part of the implementation of the National Education Policy (NEP)-2020 that envisaged a standard-setting body:
• To advise school boards regarding new assessment patterns and the latest research, and promote collaborations between them
• To facilitate students for self-assessment of learning outcomes
• To remove disparities in the score of students enrolled with different boards
About NEP 2020
The NEP 2020 intends to boost spending on education by enhancing the education budget to a level of 6% of the GDP. It has emphasized the use of the mother tongue or local language as the medium of instruction till Class 5 while recommending its continuance till Class 8 and beyond.
PM-KISAN
Context:
• The Centre may increase the income support provided to farmers under the PM-KISAN scheme from Rs 6,000 to 8,000 rupees/year.
• It is an effort to boost consumption and rural demand. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN)
• The number of beneficiaries has crossed 110 million from 31 million at the beginning of the scheme and financial assistance of more than Rs 2 trillion has been provided to needy farmers in over 3 years.
• The scheme addressed the liquidity constraints of farmers for buying agricultural inputs, daily consumption, education, health, and other incidental expenses, especially during the Covid pandemic.
• A Niti Aayog member suggests converting the PM-KISAN program into a Universal Basic Income (UBI) program that covers other vulnerable groups, such as farm laborers, etc.
CAN INDIA’S BHAROS REPLACE ANDROID AND IOS?
Context:
Developed by an IIT Madras-incubated startup, BharOS is being pitched as India’s answer to the Google-owned Android and Apple’s iOS, the two most dominant mobile operating systems in the world. What is BharOS? How was it made?
• BharOS is an Android Open-Source Project and was developed by JandK Operations Private Limited, a non-profit organization incubated at IIT Madras.
• Concerns existed for the collection, storage, and usage of data that is generated by Indian smartphone users. BharOS tries to address these issues.
‘SHUKRAYAAN’
Context:
Professor at the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and advisor to its space science program, said that the organization is yet to receive approval from the Indian government for the Venus mission and that the mission could, as a result, be postponed to 2031. Other countries’ missions to Venus:
• Both the U.S. and the European space agencies have Venus missions planned for 2031 —VERITAS and EnVision, respectively.
ISRO had originally hoped to launch Shukrayaan I in mid-2023 but cited the pandemic when it pushed the date to December 2024. Other ISRO missions, including Aditya L1 and Chandrayaan III, have also been affected by manufacturing delays and commercial launch commitments.
JAMES WEBB TELESCOPE DISCOVERS ITS FIRST EXOPLANET
Context:
James Webb Space Telescope has discovered its first new exoplanet. The planet is named LHS 475 b, and it is roughly the same size as Earth.
MASS MORTALITY OF OLIVE RIDLEY TURTLES
Context:
Hundreds of vulnerable Olive Ridley Turtles ( Lepidochelys olivacea) have washed ashore along the coastline between Kakinada and Antarvedi in the Godavari region during the ongoing annual breeding season on the east coast.
Reasons stated:
• The effluents are released from the aqua ponds along the coastline.
• The discharges from the pipelines of the onshore oil exploration facilities
About Olive Ridley Turtles:
• They are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.
• They get their name from their olive-colored carapace.
• Known for Arribada (Mass Nesting)
Protection Status:
• Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Scheduled 1
• IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
• CITES Appendix I
Distribution:
They are found in warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic, and Indian oceans.
In India, they are conserved in Bhitarkanika National Park, Odisha, Gahirmata Marine Sanctuary, Odisha, and the Godavari region of Andhra Pradesh.
SHORT SELLING
Context:
Hindenburg Research, which has accused the Adani Group of fraud, is a short seller.
What is Short-Selling?
Short selling, or shorting, is a trading strategy based on the expectation that the price of the security will fall. While fundamentally it is based on the “buy low, sell high” approach, the sequence of transactions is reversed in short selling — to sell high first and buy low later. Also, in short selling, the trader usually does not own the securities he sells but merely borrows them.
BHOPAL DECLARATION
Context:
Bhopal Declaration was released after discussion in the two-day meeting of Think-20 under G20 in Bhopal About the Declaration: It was released after the Think20 (T20) meeting of G20 countries’ think tanks and research centers.
Highlights of the declaration:
• To focus more on inclusive development
• Care for the welfare of every section of society in comparison to GDP
• Give special attention to children
• Encourage the model of development led by women
• Bridge the gap between North and South
• Work together to ensure the health of all
• Importance of localization in achieving G-20 sustainable development goals
• Triangular cooperation of government, society, and private organizations
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Miscellaneous
The greenfield international airport at Mopa, Goa has been renamed after the former Chief Minister of Goa as – Manohar International Airport
Australian Open 2023
Note: Novak Djokovic and Rafael Nadal both have the maximum number of Grand Slam Men's Singles titles i.e. 22.
*Aryna Sabalenka is a Belarusian player, but she participated in her capacity as Russian and Belarusian flags were banned from being displayed at the tournament.
ICC Awards 2022
Sir Garfield Sobers Trophy: Babar Azam (Pakistan)
Rachael Heyhoe Flint Trophy: Nat Sciver (England)
Men’s Test Cricketer of the Year: Ben Stokes (England)
Men’s ODI Cricketer of the Year: Babar Azam (Pakistan)
Women’s ODI Cricketer of the Year: Nat Sciver (England)
Men’s T20 International Cricketer of the Year: Suryakumar Yadav (India)
Women’s T20 International Cricketer of the Year: Tahlia McGrath (Australia)
Men’s Emerging Cricketer of the Year: Marco Jansen (South Africa)
Women’s Emerging Cricketer of the Year: Renuka Singh (India)
Men’s Associate Cricketer of the Year: Gerhard Erasmus (Namibia)
Women’s Associate Cricketer of the Year: Esha Oza (UAE)
David Shepherd Trophy: Richard Illingworth (England)
Spirit of Cricket Award: Aasif Sheikh (Nepal)
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Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar-2023
Institutional Category:
1. Odisha State Disaster Management Authority and
2. Lunglei Fire Station, Mizoram
India Open Badminton Tournament 2023
Venue: KD Jadhav Indoor Hall in New Delhi
Winners of men's singles: Kunlavut Vitidsarn (Thailand)
Winners of women's singles: An Se-young (South Korea)
Important Days of January
2023 Men's FIH Hockey World Cup
• Held from 13 to 29 January 2023
• Venues: Kalinga Stadium (Bhubaneswar) & Birsa Munda International Hockey Stadium (Rourkela)
• Winners: Germany (3rd title)
• Runners-up: Belgium
• Third position: Netherlands
• Best Player: Niklas Wellen (Germany)
• Best Goalkeeper: Vincent Vanasch (Belgium)
• Fair Play Award: Belgium
• Note: India and Argentina stood in the 9th position
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2023 Republic Day Awards
Chief Guest: Egyptian President Abdel-Fattah el-Sisi
Best Marching Contingent among the three services - Punjab Regiment Centre Contingent Best Marching Contingent among CAPF/other auxiliary forces - CRPF Marching Contingent Best three Tableaux (States/UTs)
1. Uttarakhand (Manaskhand)
2. Maharashtra (Sade Tin Shaktipithe & Nari Shakti)
3. Uttar Pradesh (Ayodhya Deepotsav)
Best Tableau (Ministries/Departments) - Ministry of Tribal Affairs (Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRSs))
Special Prize: Central Public Works Department (Biodiversity Conservation)
The online poll for the popular choice was conducted between January 25-28, 2023 on the MyGov web page. The results are
Best Marching Contingent among the three services - INDIAN AIR FORCE MARCHING CONTINGENT Best Marching Contingent among CAPF/other auxiliary forces - CRPF MARCHING CONTINGENT Best three Tableaux (States/UTs):
1. Gujarat (Clean-Green energy efficient Gujarat)
2. Uttar Pradesh (Ayodhya Deepotsava)
3. Maharashtra (Sade tin Shaktipeeth and Nari Shakti)
Best Tableau (Central Ministries/Departments) - CAPF (Ministry of Home Affairs
80th Golden Globe Awards
Awarded by: Hollywood Foreign Press Association (HFPA).
Ceremony held on: January 10, 2023
The ceremony was held in: Beverly Hills, California
Best Motion Picture (Drama): The Fabelmans directed by Steven Spielberg
Best Motion Picture (Musical or Comedy): The Banshees of Inisherin directed by Martin McDonagh Best Motion Picture (Animated): Pinocchio directed by Guillermo del Toro and Mark Gustafson Best Motion Picture (Non-English): Argentina, 1985 directed by Santiago Mitre Best Actor (Drama): Austin Butler for Elvis
Best Actress (Drama): Catherine Blanchett for Tar
Best Director: Steven Spielberg for The Fabelmans
Best Original Score: Justin Hurwitz for Babylon
Best Original Song: Naatu Naatu composed by MM Keeravani and written by Chandrabose Most nominations were received for: The Banshees of Inisherin (8 nominations) The Cecil B. DeMille Award for outstanding contributions to the world of entertainment: Eddie Murphy
The Carol Burnett Award for Outstanding and lasting contributions to Television on or off the Screen: Ryan Murphy
MV Ganga Vilas
• Longest River Cruise in the World
• Journey from Varanasi (U.P.)
• Journey to Dibrugarh (Assam)
• Route across 27 river systems in India and Bangladesh
• Duration of the trip: 51 days
• Distance covered: 3,200 km
• Features of the cruise ship: 3 decks, 18 suites with a capacity of 36 tourists.
ICC U-19 Women's T20 World Cup 2023
Held: From 14 to 29 January 2023
Hosted by: South Africa
Winners: India
Runners-up: England
Player of the series: Grace Scrivens (England) Most runs: Shweta Sehrawat (India)
Most wickets: Maggie Clark (Australia)
Captain of the Indian team: Shafali Verma
Padma Awards 2023
Padma Vibhushan
Art: Shri Zakir Hussain
Architecture: Shri Balkrishna Doshi (Posthumous) Public Affairs: Shri S.M. Krishna
Medicine: Shri Dilip Mahalanabis (Posthumous) Science & Engineering: Shri Srinivas Varadhan (USA) Public Affairs: Shri Mulayam Singh (Posthumous) Padma Bhushan
Literature & Education: Shri SL Bhyrappa Trade & Industry: Shri Kumar Mangalam Birla Science & Engineering: Shri Deepak Dhar Art: Ms. Vani Jairam
Others (Spiritualism): Swami Chinna Jeeyar Art: Ms. Suman Kalyanpur
Literature & Education: Shri Kapil Kapoor Social Work: Shri Ms. Sudha Murty
Others (Spiritualism): Shri Kamlesh D Patel
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Padma Shri
Art
1. Ms. Jodhaiyabai Baiga
2. Shri Premjit Baria
3. Ms. Usha Barle
4. Shri Hemant Chauhan
5. Shri Bhanubhai Chitara
6. Ms. Hemoprova Chutia
7. Ms. Subhadra Devi
8. Shri Hem Chandra Goswami
9. Ms. Pritikana Goswami
10. Shri Ahmed Hussain & Shri Modh Hussain (Duo) 11. Shri Dilshad Hussain
12. Shri Mahipat Kavi
13. Shri MM Keeravaani
14. Shri Parshuram Komaji Khune
15. Shri Maguni Charan Kuanr
16. Shri Domar Singh Kunvar
17. Shri Risingbor Kurkalang
18. Ms. Rani Machaiah
19. Shri Ajay Kumar Mandavi
20. Shri Nadoja Pindipapanahalli Munivenkatappa 21. Shri Ramesh Parmar & Ms. Shanti Parmar (Duo) 22. Ms. Krishna Patel
23. Shri K. Kalyanasundaram Pillai
24. Shri Kapil Dev Prasad
25. Shri Shah Rasheed Ahmed Quadri
26. Shri CV RajuShri Pareshbhai Rathwa
27. Shri Mangala Kanti Roy
28. Ms. KC Runremsangi
29. Shri Ritwik Sanyal
30. Shri Kota Satchidananda Sastry
31. Ms. Neihunuo Sorhie
32. Shri Moa Subong
33. Ms. Raveena Ravi Tandon
34. Ms. Coomi Nariman Wadia
35. Shri Ghulam Muhammad Zaz
Literature & Education
1. Shri Radha Charan Gupta
2. Shri CI Issac
3. Shri Rattan Singh Jaggi
4. Shri Anand Kumar
5. Shri Prabhakar Bhanudas Mande
6. Shri Antaryami Mishra
7. Shri Ramesh Patange
8. Shri B. Ramakrishna Reddy
9. Shri Mohan Singh
10. Shri Prakash Chandra Sood
11. Dr. Janum Singh Soy
12. Shri Vishwanath Prasad Shri Dhaniram Toto
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Medicine
1. Shri Munishwar Chanddawar
2. Shri Ratan Chandra Kar
3. Dr. Nalini Parthasarathi
4. Shri Hanumantha Rao Pasupuleti
5. Shri Manoranjan Sahu
6. Dr. Gopalasamy Veluchamy
7. Dr. Ishwar Chander Verma
Others
1. Dr. Sukama Acharya (Spiritualism)
2. Shri Patayat Sahu (Agriculture)
3. Shri Nekram Sharma (Agriculture)
4. Shri Kushok Thiksey Nawang Chamba Stanzin (Spiritualism) 5. Shri S. Subbaraman (Archaeology)
6. Shri Tula Ram Upreti (Agriculture)
Public Affairs
1. Shri Narendra Chandra Debbarma (Posthumous) 2. Shri Thounaojam Chaoba Singh
Science and Engineering
1. Shri Khadar Valli Dudekula
2. Shri Kodadugu Vijay Gupta
3. Shri Ganesh Nagappa Krishnarajanagara
4. Shri Arvind Kumar
5. Prof (Dr.) Mahendra Pal Rajvanshi
6. Shri Bakshi Ram
7. Ms. Sujatha Ramdorai
Social Work
1. Shri Bhiku Ramji Idate
2. Shri Bikram Bahadur Jamatia
3. Shri Ramkuiwangbe Jene
4. Ms. Hirabai LobiShri Moolchand Lodha 5. Shri Gajanan Jagannath
6. Shri Uma Shankar Pandey
7. Shri VP Appukuttan Poduval
8. Shri Vadivel Gopal & Shri Masi Sadaiyan (Duo) 9. Shri Sankurathri Chandra Sekhar
10. Shri Laxman Singh
11. Shri Palam Kalyana Sundaram
12. Shri Karma Wangchu (Posthumous)
Sports
1. Shri SRD Prasad
2. Shri K. Shanathoiba Sharma
3. Shri Gurcharan Singh
Trade and Industry
1. Shri Rakesh Jhunjhunwala (Posthumous) 2. Shri Areez Khambatta
3. Ms. Muktamani Devi
4. Shri Ryuko Hira
Books in News
‘Ambedkar: A Life by Dr. Shashi Tharoor
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